MeGzTeR
Thursday, March 25, 2010
Monday, March 22, 2010
xray
HOW TO COMPARE X-RAY DOSES
TO OTHER IMAGING TESTS AND OTHER RISKS
by Susan L. Vlasuk, DC, DACBR www.drvxray.com slvlasuk@msn.com
To understand this, you must first read the article titled .X-ray Exposure. on this website
As mentioned in the previous article, here are some representative ESEs for plain films: (typical
equipment, 400-speed film/screen imaging)
Cervical spine study (7v) ½ r
Thoracic spine study (2v) ½ r
Lumbar spine study (2v) 1-2r
Chest study (2v) 1/20r or less
Here are some other representative ESEs:
Routine G-I study with fluoroscopy 5 r
4v routine screening mammogram 1/4 - 1/3 r
Here are some reference values (RVs) now recommended by the AAPM (American Association of Physicists in Medicine) are based on levels achieved by 75% to 80% of U.S. facilities in a nationwide survey. The following are the levels set for various exams (1mGy = 100mr). Note that .reference values. generally indicate that these values should not be exceeded. In practice, actual exposure values are often lower.
PA chest (1v): 0.25 mGy (25mr = 1/40 r)
AP cervical spine: 1.25 mGy (125mr)
AP abdomen: 4.50 mGy (450mr)
AP lumbar spine: 5.0 mGy (500mr)
Head CT (measured at the center of a phantom): 60 mGy (6000 = 6r)
Body CT (measured at the periphery of a phantom, 1 cm beneath the surface): 40 mGy (4000mr = 4r)
Fluoroscopy 65 mGy/min (6500mr/min)
A routine bone scan (radioactive isotope study) might create about 1/10 rem dose
Doses to specific organs would, of course, be less than the skin entrance dose, because the organs are obviously deep to the skin. For example, while the skin entrance dose for a 2-view thoracic study is approximately 1/2 rad, the male gonad dose for that same study is only approximately 1/10 of one millirad!
Comparison to Dental X-rays
Watch out for dental exposures reported as .effective doses.. The regional skin dose is extrapolated to the whole body, therefore a localized exposure of 15 mR is equivalent to some very small number of microGray (millionths of Grays, or 100 millionths of rads)!
Intra-oral (bite-wings) (film) measured exposure at skin entrance: WA state average is 250 mr, depending on the kV and film speed being used. While still low figures, the reason that these values seem a bit high as compared to cervical spine x-rays is that they are direct exposures on film; that is, there are no intensifying screens. If skin doses are compared, many offices could produce all 7 cervical spine films in
a comprehensive study for less skin dose radiation than one or two bite wings!
Intra-oral (digital) WA state average is around 70 mr, depending on whether it is CR (phosphor plate technology requiring "processing") or DR (direct digital, like the Schick system).
Cephalometric (film) skin entrance is usually just 15 mr, coincidentally same as chest. Panoramic is more difficult to measure because it is a slit beam moving around. In units using film, we have measured around 1500 mR right where the beam, after exiting the patient’s head, enters the slit of the image receptor, so obviously much more at skin entrance.
Literature says that .effective dose. is 0.3 to 1 mr!
Comparison to routine G-I studies
Routine G-I contrast studies involve x-ray doses that are approximately three to four times greater than that required even for one of our biggest plain film studies, a 5-view lumbar study. These studies have been utilized for decades and there is no data to show any transient or long-term symptoms or measurable functional defects associated with these studies. This places our routine diagnostic skeletal studies into a very safe range.
BACKGROUND RADIATION
People often make the mistake of thinking that x-rays are their only source of radiation! In fact, we are all routinely exposed to .background radiation,. simply because we exist in the world. We all receive whole body radiation dose from cosmic rays, from terrestrial sources (land, rocks, etc), and our food, water, and air. The average total background radiation of about 1/3 rem per year roughly compares to having 7 2v chest x-rays! (Another example of how low the exposures are for diagnostic x-rays!)
If one lives in Denver, he receives more background radiation, because of the elevation, than if one lives at sea level in Seattle.
The term .rem. is used for measuring background radiation, in order to cover the other forms of ionizing radiation which we routinely encounter, which are not x-ray, but which can have biologic effect on living tissue.)
Here are some representative values for background radiation, obtained from the American Nuclear Society website http://www.ans.org/:
Average background exposure for Americans 360 mrem / year (1/3 rem)
Cosmic radiation at sea level (higher w/ elevation) 26 mrem / year
Terrestrial (from the ground) 30 mrem / year
Living or working in stone, brick, concrete building 7 mrem / year
Food 40 mrem / year
Air (largely radon) 200 mrem / year
Jet flight ½-1 mrem / hour in air
Luggage inspection 0.002 mrem
People often also make the mistake of disregarding the other life risks that they routinely encounter:
Estimated loss of life expectancy in days due to various causes (Health Physics 1979;36:707)
Cigarette smoking (males) 2250
Dangerous job 800
Motor vehicle accidents 207
Alcohol (US average) 130
Accidents at home 95
Average job 74
Safest job 30
Natural radiation 8
Medical x-rays 6
These statistics suggest that it is more dangerous to drive to the doctor.s office than to have the x-rays once you are there!
Consideration of impact to the body - comparison of stressors
There is no dosage of ionizing radiation which is low enough so that it causes no ionization, so there is always theoretic damage at the atomic level. We know, however, that a vast number of atoms can be altered without any effect being discernible by any known testing method, including our most detailed
chromosomal analysis.
We have roughly 75 trillion cells, each composed of uncounted atoms. An astronomical number of whole cells die normally every day, and the body is designed to maintain itself and replace cells that are damaged or live their full life span. Just for your general amazement:
_ 300 million cells in our bodies die every minute and are immediately replaced so that the number remains relatively constant throughout adulthood.
_ 28 billion skin cells are lost every day; ½ million every 30 seconds!
If we were to look at a skinned knee on the atomic . and even cellular . level, it would look catastrophic!
Benefit-Risk Ratio
This balancing act is what the doctor considers when he/she orders a radiologic study. We know that a well-produced diagnostic radiologic study, utilizing optimum radiation protection techniques, is a negligible health risk, at most - more theoretical than real - and that it is well justified in the proper investigation of health complaints because its potential benefits far outweigh the infinitesimal negative effects on the body.
How Do You Know YOUR Office Exposures?
As previously stated, there are tables available which provide averages for every standard type of diagnostic x-ray study. This is only an average, however, because individual x-ray tubes emit varying amounts of energy; and patient size, varying screen/film/grid combinations, etc, can bring figures out of the .average. range. The values derived from tables are perfectly adequate for general purposes, however, and are usually the only information which is available in any given case.
It is possible for an individual x-ray facility to be checked so that you will know what the output of your specific machine is. This test is performed by radiation control specialists, and it involves the use of a professional dosimetry unit. This cannot be accomplished in a brief routine inspection, but requires an extended period of time on the part of the radiation control examiner. Even so, you would still only obtain a few representative values.
When tube output is measured by the radiation control examiner, the results are given in units of mR/mAs. This indicates how many milliroentgens (mR) of exposure are actually produced for every mAs selected at the control unit. For example, if you set your machine utilizing the 200 mA station and the 1-second time setting, you know that you would end up with 200 mAs. The question is, how many mR of exposure does your machine produce for this 200 mAs? To make matters more complicated, the mR/mAs varies depending on the kV setting!
It is not really necessary for practical purposes to have a dosimetry test simply for the purpose of checking tube output (everyone just depends on the average doses published in charts), but it may be of interest in determining the adequacy of lead shielding in the walls and operator.s booth.
Remember: there is no comparison between constant TOTAL BODY radiation that radiation workers may be exposed to - and the occasional REGIONAL radiation that patients may require.
Reported dosage due to dental X-rays seems to vary significantly. Depending on the source, a typical dental X-ray of a human results in an exposure of perhaps, 3,[10] 40,[11] 300,[12] or as many as 900[13] mrems (30 to 9,000 μSv).
TO OTHER IMAGING TESTS AND OTHER RISKS
by Susan L. Vlasuk, DC, DACBR www.drvxray.com slvlasuk@msn.com
To understand this, you must first read the article titled .X-ray Exposure. on this website
As mentioned in the previous article, here are some representative ESEs for plain films: (typical
equipment, 400-speed film/screen imaging)
Cervical spine study (7v) ½ r
Thoracic spine study (2v) ½ r
Lumbar spine study (2v) 1-2r
Chest study (2v) 1/20r or less
Here are some other representative ESEs:
Routine G-I study with fluoroscopy 5 r
4v routine screening mammogram 1/4 - 1/3 r
Here are some reference values (RVs) now recommended by the AAPM (American Association of Physicists in Medicine) are based on levels achieved by 75% to 80% of U.S. facilities in a nationwide survey. The following are the levels set for various exams (1mGy = 100mr). Note that .reference values. generally indicate that these values should not be exceeded. In practice, actual exposure values are often lower.
PA chest (1v): 0.25 mGy (25mr = 1/40 r)
AP cervical spine: 1.25 mGy (125mr)
AP abdomen: 4.50 mGy (450mr)
AP lumbar spine: 5.0 mGy (500mr)
Head CT (measured at the center of a phantom): 60 mGy (6000 = 6r)
Body CT (measured at the periphery of a phantom, 1 cm beneath the surface): 40 mGy (4000mr = 4r)
Fluoroscopy 65 mGy/min (6500mr/min)
A routine bone scan (radioactive isotope study) might create about 1/10 rem dose
Doses to specific organs would, of course, be less than the skin entrance dose, because the organs are obviously deep to the skin. For example, while the skin entrance dose for a 2-view thoracic study is approximately 1/2 rad, the male gonad dose for that same study is only approximately 1/10 of one millirad!
Comparison to Dental X-rays
Watch out for dental exposures reported as .effective doses.. The regional skin dose is extrapolated to the whole body, therefore a localized exposure of 15 mR is equivalent to some very small number of microGray (millionths of Grays, or 100 millionths of rads)!
Intra-oral (bite-wings) (film) measured exposure at skin entrance: WA state average is 250 mr, depending on the kV and film speed being used. While still low figures, the reason that these values seem a bit high as compared to cervical spine x-rays is that they are direct exposures on film; that is, there are no intensifying screens. If skin doses are compared, many offices could produce all 7 cervical spine films in
a comprehensive study for less skin dose radiation than one or two bite wings!
Intra-oral (digital) WA state average is around 70 mr, depending on whether it is CR (phosphor plate technology requiring "processing") or DR (direct digital, like the Schick system).
Cephalometric (film) skin entrance is usually just 15 mr, coincidentally same as chest. Panoramic is more difficult to measure because it is a slit beam moving around. In units using film, we have measured around 1500 mR right where the beam, after exiting the patient’s head, enters the slit of the image receptor, so obviously much more at skin entrance.
Literature says that .effective dose. is 0.3 to 1 mr!
Comparison to routine G-I studies
Routine G-I contrast studies involve x-ray doses that are approximately three to four times greater than that required even for one of our biggest plain film studies, a 5-view lumbar study. These studies have been utilized for decades and there is no data to show any transient or long-term symptoms or measurable functional defects associated with these studies. This places our routine diagnostic skeletal studies into a very safe range.
BACKGROUND RADIATION
People often make the mistake of thinking that x-rays are their only source of radiation! In fact, we are all routinely exposed to .background radiation,. simply because we exist in the world. We all receive whole body radiation dose from cosmic rays, from terrestrial sources (land, rocks, etc), and our food, water, and air. The average total background radiation of about 1/3 rem per year roughly compares to having 7 2v chest x-rays! (Another example of how low the exposures are for diagnostic x-rays!)
If one lives in Denver, he receives more background radiation, because of the elevation, than if one lives at sea level in Seattle.
The term .rem. is used for measuring background radiation, in order to cover the other forms of ionizing radiation which we routinely encounter, which are not x-ray, but which can have biologic effect on living tissue.)
Here are some representative values for background radiation, obtained from the American Nuclear Society website http://www.ans.org/:
Average background exposure for Americans 360 mrem / year (1/3 rem)
Cosmic radiation at sea level (higher w/ elevation) 26 mrem / year
Terrestrial (from the ground) 30 mrem / year
Living or working in stone, brick, concrete building 7 mrem / year
Food 40 mrem / year
Air (largely radon) 200 mrem / year
Jet flight ½-1 mrem / hour in air
Luggage inspection 0.002 mrem
People often also make the mistake of disregarding the other life risks that they routinely encounter:
Estimated loss of life expectancy in days due to various causes (Health Physics 1979;36:707)
Cigarette smoking (males) 2250
Dangerous job 800
Motor vehicle accidents 207
Alcohol (US average) 130
Accidents at home 95
Average job 74
Safest job 30
Natural radiation 8
Medical x-rays 6
These statistics suggest that it is more dangerous to drive to the doctor.s office than to have the x-rays once you are there!
Consideration of impact to the body - comparison of stressors
There is no dosage of ionizing radiation which is low enough so that it causes no ionization, so there is always theoretic damage at the atomic level. We know, however, that a vast number of atoms can be altered without any effect being discernible by any known testing method, including our most detailed
chromosomal analysis.
We have roughly 75 trillion cells, each composed of uncounted atoms. An astronomical number of whole cells die normally every day, and the body is designed to maintain itself and replace cells that are damaged or live their full life span. Just for your general amazement:
_ 300 million cells in our bodies die every minute and are immediately replaced so that the number remains relatively constant throughout adulthood.
_ 28 billion skin cells are lost every day; ½ million every 30 seconds!
If we were to look at a skinned knee on the atomic . and even cellular . level, it would look catastrophic!
Benefit-Risk Ratio
This balancing act is what the doctor considers when he/she orders a radiologic study. We know that a well-produced diagnostic radiologic study, utilizing optimum radiation protection techniques, is a negligible health risk, at most - more theoretical than real - and that it is well justified in the proper investigation of health complaints because its potential benefits far outweigh the infinitesimal negative effects on the body.
How Do You Know YOUR Office Exposures?
As previously stated, there are tables available which provide averages for every standard type of diagnostic x-ray study. This is only an average, however, because individual x-ray tubes emit varying amounts of energy; and patient size, varying screen/film/grid combinations, etc, can bring figures out of the .average. range. The values derived from tables are perfectly adequate for general purposes, however, and are usually the only information which is available in any given case.
It is possible for an individual x-ray facility to be checked so that you will know what the output of your specific machine is. This test is performed by radiation control specialists, and it involves the use of a professional dosimetry unit. This cannot be accomplished in a brief routine inspection, but requires an extended period of time on the part of the radiation control examiner. Even so, you would still only obtain a few representative values.
When tube output is measured by the radiation control examiner, the results are given in units of mR/mAs. This indicates how many milliroentgens (mR) of exposure are actually produced for every mAs selected at the control unit. For example, if you set your machine utilizing the 200 mA station and the 1-second time setting, you know that you would end up with 200 mAs. The question is, how many mR of exposure does your machine produce for this 200 mAs? To make matters more complicated, the mR/mAs varies depending on the kV setting!
It is not really necessary for practical purposes to have a dosimetry test simply for the purpose of checking tube output (everyone just depends on the average doses published in charts), but it may be of interest in determining the adequacy of lead shielding in the walls and operator.s booth.
Remember: there is no comparison between constant TOTAL BODY radiation that radiation workers may be exposed to - and the occasional REGIONAL radiation that patients may require.
Reported dosage due to dental X-rays seems to vary significantly. Depending on the source, a typical dental X-ray of a human results in an exposure of perhaps, 3,[10] 40,[11] 300,[12] or as many as 900[13] mrems (30 to 9,000 μSv).
Saturday, March 6, 2010
----
DR. SUHAIB KHUSRO
Sample Exam Paper 2
1. Principle of Dental Elevator is for all except:
a) Wheel and Axis
b) Wedging
c) Lever
d) Wedging of the socket wall CORRECT
2. CMCP ( Camphorated Mono chlorophenol) contains phenol in conctn :
a) 0.5%
b) 35% CORRECT
c) 65%
d) 5%
3. Anterior Open bite is caused by :
a) Unilateral condylar fracture
b) Bilateral condylar fracture CORRECT
c) Lefort II fracture
d) Zygomatic fracture
4. Indirect pulp capping is done in :
a) Primary molar CORRECT 2
b) Primary incisor
c) Permanent molar CORRECT 1
d) None of the above
5. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct composite except :
a) Efficient polymerization
b) Good contact proximally
c) Gingival seal
d) Good retention CORRECT
6. After Class V glass ionomer restoration , removal of a thin flush of glass ionomer is done by:
a) Scaler or knife immediately
b) Finishing stone immediately
c) Scaler or knife later
d) Finishing stone later
Choose the correct option:
a) A+B
b) A+D CORRECT
c) C+D
7. The best finished composite surface is achieved by :
a) 12 fluted bur CORRECT
b) Diamond bur
c) Matrix band with no additional finish
8. In class V composite restoration a layer of bonding agent is applied:
a) Following removal of excess composite then cured CORRECT
b) Following removal of excess composite then not cured
c) Cured then remove excess cement’
9. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration may be due to :
a) Not enough bulk of dentin ( undermined enamel)
b) Corrosion
c) Over carving
d) Improper manipulation of amalgam
Select the appropriate choice
a) A+B
b) C+D
c) B+C+D
d) All of the above CORRECT
10. Length of pins must be equal in both tooth and restoration by a depth :
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm CORRECT
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm
11. Stainless steel pins is used in amalgam for:
a) Increase retention CORRECT
b) Increase resistance
c) Increase strength
d) Both a & b
12. Ca channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion
a) True
b) False CORRECT
13. RCT is contraindicated in:
a) Vertical fracture of root CORRECT
b) Diabetic patient
c) Unrestored teeth
d) Periodontally involved teeth
14. What can we use under composite restoration?
a) CaOH CORRECT
b) ZOE
c) Reinforced ZOE
d) Zinc phosphate
(Primarily GIC is used)
15. Gutta-percha contains mainly:
a) Gutta percha
b) Zinc oxide CORRECT
c) Zinc phosphate
d) Beeswax
16. Single rooted anterior teeth needs endodontic treatment which is best treated by:
a) Casted post n core CORRECT
b) Preformed post n composite
c) Preformed post n amalgam
d) Composite post n core
17. one of the anatomical landmark is:
a) ala tragus line CORRECT
b) ala orbital line
c) Frankfurt horizontal plane
18. the pH of CaOH is equal to:
a) 5.5
b) 7.5
c) 12.5 CORRECT
d) 19.5
19. Hyperemia result in:
a) Trauma from occlusion
b) Pain of short duration CORRECT
c) Radiographic changes
d) All of the above for short duration
20. Interproximal caries of anterior teeth is best detected by:
a) Periapical X-ray film CORRECT
b) Bitewing X-ray film( bite wings are not used for anteriors)
c) Occlusal X-ray film
d) None of the above
21. Mandibular foramen in young children is:
a) At the level of the occlusal plane
b) Above the level of occlusal plane
c) Anterior to level of occlusal plane
d) Below the level of occlusal plane CORRECT
22. Rubber dam is used in pedodontics:
a) For visibility and accessibility
b) To protect pt. against swallowing any foreign material
c) For a sterile field
d) a + b CORRECT
23. In primary teeth, pathological changes in radiographs are always seen :
a) Periapical area
b) Furcation area CORRECT
c) Alveolar crest
d) At the base of developing teeth
24. Eruption cyst “Eruption hematoma” can be treated by:
a) No treatment CORRECT
b) Immediate incision
c) Complete coverage
d) Observe for one week then incise
25. After trauma a tooth becomes yellowish in color this is due to :
a) Necrotic pulp
b) Irreversible pulpitis
c) Pulp is partially or completely obliterated
d) Hemorrhage in the pulp CORRECT
26. Step deformity of mandibular body fracture may be due to :
a) Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle
b) Upward pull of masseter and temporalis CORRECT
c) Inward pull of medial pterygoid muscle
d) Downward pull of geniohyoid and mylohyoid
27. In gamma 2 amalgam, the amount of Cu is:
a) 13.1 CORRECT
b) 21.5
c) 16.2
d) 30.5
28. Inorganic material in bone comprises of :
a) 65% CORRECT
b) 25%
c) 10%
d) 95%
29. Facial nerve supplies:
a) Masseter muscle
b) Temporalis muscle
c) Buccinators muscle CORRECT
d) Mylohyoid muscle
30. polishing bur has ;
a) less than 6 blades
b) 6-7 blades
c) 10-12 blades
d) More than 12 blades CORRECT
31. Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by;
a) Slowly injection
b) Talking to the child during injection
c) Using long needle
d) A + B CORRECT
32. Rubber dam is contraindicated in:
a) Pt. with nasal obstruction CORRECT 2
b) Mentally retarded patient
c) Uncooperative child
d) a + b CORRECT 1
33. Ranula can be treated by:
a) Excision
b) Cauterization
c) Incision
d) Marsupialization CORRECT
34. The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is :
a) Excisional biopsy CORRECT
b) Incisional biopsy
c) Aspiration through needle
d) Punch biopsy
e) Fine needle aspiration cytology
35. In maxillary 1st molars 4th canal is found in :
a) MB root CORRECT
b) DB root
c) Palatal root
36. Formacresol, when used should be in its :
a) Full concentration
b) Half concentration
c) Fifth concentration CORRECT
d) None of the above
37. 10 years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the disease:
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Cherubism CORRECT
c) Pleomorphic adenoma
38. Pt. complains from pain in #45 which had gold onlay the pain could be due to :
a) Chemicals from the cement
b) High thermal conductivity of gold CORRECT
c) Related to periodontal ligament
39. Irrigation solutions are used in endodontics to :
a) Lubricate the canals
b) Flushes the debris
c) Bactericidal effect
d) All the above CORRECT
40. Which is most common :
a) Cleft lip
b) Cleft palate
c) Bifid tongue
d) Cleft lip and palate CORRECT
41. Which nerve passes through petrous part of temporal bone:
a) V
b) VII CORRECT
c) IX
d) VIII
42. Fracture of upper central incisor in 8 year old child results in pulp exposure how will u manage this case?
a) Apexification
b) Pulpotomy CORRECT
c) RCT
43. 21 years old patient with pathological exposure in #35 management is :
a) Direct pulp capping CORRECT
b) Indirect pulp capping
c) Root canal treatment
44. During examination #34 shows gingival recession buccally, the least correct reason is:
a) Frenum attachment
b) Pt. is right hand brusher
c) Occlusal force CORRECT
d) Inadequate gingiva
45. Hypercementosis :
a) Occurs in Pagets disease
b) Difficult to extract
c) Bulbous root
d) Easy to manage by elevator
Select the correct answer:
a) a + b
b) a + d
c) All the above CORRECT
46. For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:
a) 1.5 mm CORRECT
b) 2 mm
c) 1 mm
d) 2.5 mm
(Actually answer should have been 1 mm)
47. Thickness of porcelain should be:
a) 0.3 – 0.5 mm
b) 0.05 – 0.15 mm
c) 0.5 – 1.5 mm
d) 1.7-2.5 mm CORRECT
48. Class II composite resin is lined by :
a) GIC CORRECT
b) Reinforced ZOE
c) ZOE with ortho epoxy cement
d) Cavity varnish
49. Occlusal plane is :
a) Above the level of the tongue
b) Below the level of the tongue CORRECT
50. Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origins?
a) 1
b) 2 CORRECT
c) 5
d) 7
51. During intra uterine life, embryo become fetus in:
a) 1st week
b) 1st month
c) 2nd month
d) 3rd month CORRECT
52. All are single bone in the skull except:
a) Lacrimal CORRECT
b) Occipital
c) Sphenoid
d) Vomer
53. Foramen ovale is in the following bone:
a) Parietal bone
b) Temporal bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Sphenoid CORRECT
54. In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in length?
a) Filiform CORRECT
b) Fungi form
c) Foliate
d) Circumvallate
55. coronal suture is between:
a) occipital and temporal
b) frontal and parietal CORRECT
c) occipital and tympanic
56. During instrumentation sudden disappear of root canal due to :
a) Bifurcation of main canal CORRECT
b) Apical perforation
c) Calcification
57. When should a child be first exposed for using tooth brush :
a) At eruption of the first tooth
b) 1 year CORRECT
c) 2 years
d) Primary school year
(Actual is from one to two years of age)
58. Early loss of anterior teeth :
a) Affects phonetics
b) Affects aesthetics
c) Causes space loss
d) a + b
e) all of the above CORRECT
59. Amount of GP should be left after post preparation
a) 1 mm
b) 4-5 mm CORRECT
c) 10 mm
d) None of the above
60. What is the number of pharyngeal “Branchial”arches?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6 CORRECT
d) 7
61. What is the name of the 1st pharyngeal arch?
a) Maxillary
b) Mandibular CORRECT
62. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
a) ½ intercuspal distance
b) 1/3 intercuspal distance CORRECT
c) ¾ intercuspal distance
63. Polyvinyl siloxane compared with polysulfide:
a) Can be poured more than once
b) Can be poured after 7 days
c) Less dimensional stability
d) a + b CORRECT
64. Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child
a) Mentally retarded
b) Positive resistance
c) Uncooperative
d) Hysterical CORRECT
65. Space loss occurs in:
a) Proximal caries
b) Early extraction CORRECT
c) Ankylosis
d) All of the above
66. After amalgam trituration, the mix should be placed within:
a) 1 min
b) 3 min
c) 5 min CORRECT
d) 10 min
67. Pits & fissure sealants are indicated in:
a) Deep pits & fissures
b) Newly erupted teeth
c) Both a & b CORRECT
68. Apthous ulcer as compared with Herpetic ulcer is:
a) Apthous is more characteristic in histology
b) Apthous leaves a scar
c) Apthous is less responsive to stress
d) Apthous occurs in the lining mucosa
e) b+ d CORRECT
69. Squamos cell carcinoma is derived from:
a) Epithelial tissue CORRECT
b) Connective tissue
70. Syphilis first appearance :
a) Multiple vesicle
b) Erythematous reaction
c) Ulcer CORRECT
d) Bullae
71. Management knife edge ridge in complete dentures
a) Reline with resilient material CORRECT
b) Maximum coverage
c) Wide occlusal table
(Actual answer is surgically recontouring the ridge)
72. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesn’t cause fluorosis because
a) Its not the same fluoride that causes fluorosis
b) Teeth already calcified CORRECT
c) Calcium in the mouth counter
d) Saliva wash it out
73. The antibiotic of choice in endodontics
a) Metronidazole
b) Penicillin CORRECT
c) Tetracycline
74. Veruccous carcinoma is :
a) Malignant CORRECT
b) Benign
75. Suture most commonly used in the oral cavity
a) Black silk CORRECT
b) Catgut
c) Chromic
76. In combined endo- perio problems:
a) Start with the endodontic treatment CORRECT
b) Start with the periodontic treatment
77. Tooth fracture during extraction may occur due to :
a) Nonvital tooth
b) Diabetic pt
c) Improper holding by forceps
d) a + c CORRECT
78. After scaling and root planing healing occurs by:
a) Long junctional epithelium
b) New attachment CORRECT
79. Caries consists of :
a) Bacteria CORRECT
b) Fluid
c) Epithelial cells
80. Post retention depends on :
1) Post length
2) Post diameter
3) Post texture
4) Core shape
5) Design of the prosthesis
a) 1+2
b) 1+2+3
c) All of the above CORRECT
d) Only 1
81. Amount of reduction in PFM crown:
a) 1.5 – 2 mm CORRECT
b) 1.7 – 2 mm
c) 2 – 5 mm
82. AH26 is the root canal sealer consists of :
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Epoxy resin CORRECT
83. Most common site of oral squamos cell carcinoma
a) Posterolateral border of the tongue CORRECT
b) Floor of the mouth
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Lip
e) Skin
84. Dentinogenesis imperfecta patient can suffer from the following except:
a) Fracture bone
b) Fracture enamel
c) Blue sclera
d) Pagets disease CORRECT
e) Supernumerary teeth
85. 5 years old child lost his upper right 1st primary molar, the best space maintainer is :
a) Lingual bar
b) Crown and loop
c) Band and loop CORRECT
86. In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is:
a) Flush terminal
b) Mesial step CORRECT
c) Distal step
87. When you give a child a gift for good behavior this is called:
a) Positive reinforcement CORRECT
b) Negative reinforcement
88. Hairy leukoplakia may be caused by :
a) Broad spectrum antibiotic
b) Hydrogen peroxide mouthwash
c) Systemic steroids
d) Heavy smokers
e) All of the above probable
89. Bacteria in endodontic pathosis is:
a) Porphyromonous endodontalis obligate anaerobe CORRECT
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Streptococcus aureus
90. In distal extension partial denture during relining occlusal rest was not seated what will u do in this case?
a) Remove impression and repeat it probable
b) Continue and seat it after relining
c) Use impression compound
91. After taking alginate impression:
a) Wash with water and spray with sodium hypochlorite for 10 secs
b) Same but wait 5-10 min and then put it in sealed plastic bag CORRECT
92. Polyether is:
a) Less stable than polysulfide
b) Less stiff than polysulfide
c) Can absorb water and swell CORRECT
93. Many parts of bone are originally cartilaginous that replaced by bone , is the statement
a) True CORRECT
b) False
94. Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth
a) MB root appear distal to P if cone is directed M to D CORRECT
b) DB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D
95. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in X-ray except:
a) Ameloblastoma
b) Odontogenic keratocyst
c) Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst CORRECT
d) Myxoma
96. Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if :
a) Occlusal plane above the tongue
b) Occlusal plane below the tongue
c) Occlusal plane at lower lip
d) None of the above CORRECT
(Actual answer is increased vertical dimension)
97. Occlusal plane should be:
a) Parallel to the interpupillary line
b) Parallel to the ala tragus line
c) At rest tongue is just above the occlusal plane
d) All of the above CORRECT
98. 33 years old female pt. came with slow growing swelling in the angle of the mandible radiograph show radio-opaque with radio- lucent border diagnosis
a) Osteoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Cementoblastoma CORRECT
99. 20 years old male pt. came with severe pain on chewing related to lower left first molar, intraoral examination reveals no caries , good oral hygiene, no changes in radiograph pt. gives history of bridge cementation 3 days ago the diagnosis :
a) Pulp necrosis CORRECT
b) Acute apical periodontitis
c) Chronic apical abscess
100. 6 year old child has # 74 and #84 extracted the best space maintainer is
a) Lingual arch
b) Bilateral band and loop CORRECT
c) Bilateral distal shoe
d) No need for space maintainer
101. Mobility in midface with step deformity in front zygomatic suture diagnosis is :
a) Lefort III
b) Lefort II CORRECT
c) Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture
102. Patient with lower complete denture, intraoral examination shows white slightly elevated lesion with confined border. Patient gives history of ill-fitting denture. It can be managed by :
a) Immediate surgical removal CORRECT
b) Instruct patient not to use denture for 2 weeks then follow up
c) Reassure patient and no need for treatment
103. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous pt. before construction of denture determines stability, support and retention related to the ridge
a) True CORRECT
b) False
104. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly pt. for construction of lower denture easily displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of the ridge. Management is :
a) Minor surgery is needed
b) Inform the patient that retention of denture will decrease
c) Special impression technique is required CORRECT
105. Class III jaw relation in edentulous pt.
a) Will affect size of maxillary teeth
b) Affect retention of lower denture
c) Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture
d) All of the above CORRECT
106. In recording mand-max jaw relation, the best material used without producing pressure is:
a) Wax
b) Compound
c) Bite registration paste CORRECT
107. In recording jaw relation, best to use:
a) Occlusal rim with record CORRECT
b) Occlusal rim with base wax
c) Occlusal rim with metal frame
108. To recheck the centric relation in complete denture:
a) Ask the patient to swallow and close CORRECT
b) Ask the patient to place tip of the tongue in posterior area of denture and close
c) To wet his lips and tongue
d) All of the above
109. By aging , pulp tissue will:
a) Decrease in collagen fibers
b) Increase cellularity and vascularity
c) Decrease in size CORRECT
110. Complete blood count “CBC” is a laboratory test important in dentistry:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
111. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of the major connector depends on:
a) Height of the lingual attachment
b) Mandibular tori
c) Periodontal condition of the remaining teeth
d) All of the above CORRECT
112. Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:
a) Dissolves in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling
b) Very toxic , contains formaldehyde
c) Contains corticosteroids CORRECT
d) All of the above
113. Sealer is used in RCT to :
a) Fill in voids’ CORRECT
b) Increase the strength of RC filling
114. Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following except:
a) Radiolucent in radiograph
b) Biocompatible
c) Easily removable when retreatment is necessary CORRECT
115. Cause that the master GP not reaching working length although it is the same size of last file
a) Dental debris
b) Ledge formation
c) a & b CORRECT
d) none of the above
116. Follow up of RCT after 3 years , RC failed best treatment is to:
a) Extraction of the tooth
b) Redo the RCT CORRECT
c) Apicectomy
117. Clinical measure performed in recall of the RCT is:
a) Reduce size of the pathological lesion
b) No pain at percussion & palpation CORRECT
c) Presence of acute inflammatory cells
118. Main apical foramen located
a) Very often lateral to the apex CORRECT
b) Always apex
c) At the lateral canal
119. Small access opening in upper central incisor leads to
a) Complete removal of the pulp
b) Incomplete removal of the pulp CORRECT
c) Conservative restoration
120. Restoration of the anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge and small M & D caries is by
a) Full crown
b) Composite restoration
c) Porcelain jacket crown CORRECT
121. Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate M & D caries is best restored by :
a) Amalgam
b) ¾ crown CORRECT 1
c) Full crown CORRECT 2
d) Onlay
122. MOD amalgam restoration with deep proximal mesial box pt comes with pain related to it after 1 month due to:
a) Pulp involvement CORRECT
b) Supra occlusion
c) Open contact
d) Gingival recession
123. Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:
a) 1 – 1.5 mm
b) 1.5 – 2 mm CORRECT
c) 2 – 3 mm
d) 3 – 5 mm
124. When aesthetics is important , posterior class I composite is done in :
a) Sub gingival box
b) Bad oral hygiene
c) Contact free area
d) Class I without central contact CORRECT
125. HBV can be transmitted by transplacental route :
a) True CORRECT
b) false
126. In sickle cell anemia , O2 is decreased in oral mucosa
a) True CORRECT
b) False
127. Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell membrane
a) True CORRECT
b) False
128. Immunofluorescent test and biopsy are used to diagnose pemphigus:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
129. After RCT, for insertion of post dowel
a) Post applied under pressure
b) Post should be lose
c) Insert it without pressure but with retention CORRECT
130. In single rooted teeth with root canal treatment, best restoration is:
a) Casted post n core CORRECT
b) Prefabricated post and amalgam
c) Prefabricated post and composite
d) Composite post and core without a dowel
131. Selection of shade for composite is done:
a) Under light CORRECT
b) After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam
c) None of the above
132. Measuring BP is one of vital signs important in medically compromised patients
a) True CORRECT
b) False
133. Commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration pt. complain from pain due to
a) Hotness
b) Coldness CORRECT
c) Occlusal pressure
d) Galvanic shock
e) Taking sweet
134. In class V composite restoration, a layer of bonding agent is applied
a) Following removal of cement then cured CORRECT
b) Following removal of cement and then cured
c) Cured then removed cement
135. Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary molar is
a) Replace and suture
b) Remove and suture with primary healing CORRECT
c) Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire
d) Remove and leave it to heal
136. Microbial virulent produced by root canal bacteria is collagenase from spirochetes:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
137. Bacteria in root canal pathosis
a) Mixed anaerobic and aerobic CORRECT
b) Single obligate anaerobes
c) Aerobes
d) None of the above
138. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it
a) Stimulates formation of secondary dentin CORRECT
b) Not irritant to the pulp
c) For thermal isolation
139. Irrigation solution for RCT that cause protein coagulation is
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Iodine potassium
c) None of the above CORRECT
140. Use of miswak and toothbrush
a) Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home CORRECT
b) Toothbrush and miswak must be used together
141. Oral diaphragm consists mainly of:
a) Tongue
b) Geniohyoid muscle
c) Digastric muscle
d) Mylohyoid muscle CORRECT
142. Occlusal rest function:
a) To resist lateral chewing movement
b) To resist vertical forces CORRECT
c) Stability
d) Retention
143. In post n core preparation core must:
a) Extend to contrabevel
b) Extend to full length tooth preparation
c) Take same shape of natural tooth
d) Take shape of preparation abutment
Select the appropriate choice:
1. a & d PROBABLE
2. a & b
3. a & c
4. a, b & c
144. in placement of RPD
a) 4 jaw contacts to teeth
b) Only 4 contacts 2 lingual & 2 buccal surface probable
c) Only 4 contacts 2 mesial & 2 distal surface
145. Chronic suppurative periodontitis
a) Pt. complains from moderate pain
b) Fistula with drain CORRECT
c) Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion
146. Acute periodontal abscess
a) Fistula present
b) Swelling enlargement in tooth site CORRECT 2
c) Variable in pain
d) Establishing I & D CORRECT 1
e) None of the above
01 نوفمبر، 2008، الساعة 05:05 مساءً
Inas i wanna say that the true answer of question no.133. which says...
most commonly after placement of amalgam restoration pt.complain from pain with
.....the correct answer is galvanic shock and not cold
06 يناير، الساعة 07:16 صباحاً
Inas the correct answer of question no 135 is a.replace and suture
06 يناير، الساعة 07:24 صباحاً
Inas the correct answer of question no 139 is a.sodium hypochlorite
06 يناير، الساعة 07:42 صباحاً
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Sample Exam Paper
1. The following chemically bond to the tooth
a) Composite resin
b) Dental sealants
c) Glass ionomer cement
d) All of the above
2. Compomer restorative materials are
a) Glass ionomer with polymer components
b) Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses
c) Composite restorations for cervical restorations only
3. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from
a) Improper cavity preparation
b) Faulty manipulation
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
4. A glossy finish is best retained on a
a) Micro filled composite resin restoration
b) Macro filled resin restoration
c) Hybrid composite resin restoration
d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
5. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a
a) No. 330 tungsten carbide bur
b) Mounted stone
c) 12 - fluted carbide bur
d) Coarse diamond point (stone)
6. The functions of cement bases are
a) To act like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks
b) The minimal thickness, which is required , is 0.5 mm of base
Choose the appropriate answer
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None
7. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics
a) Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam
b) It is the least technique sensitive of all current direct restorations
c) High dimensional changes’
Choose the appropriate answer
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 only
8. When polishing the amalgam restoration
a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b) Wait for 24 hours
Select the appropriate answer
1. a and b
2. a only
3. b only
9. Silicate cement
i. First tooth colored restoration
ii. It can be used as permanent filling
iii. It contains 15% fluoride
Select the appropriate combination
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
10. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is
a) Failure to extend the crown preparation into the gingival sulcus
b) Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
c) Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
d) Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci, and marginal ridges
11. Polyether impression materials
a) Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber
b) Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber
c) Can absorb water and swell if stored in water
12. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when
a) Abutment teeth are carious
b) An abutment tooth is inclined but is otherwise sound
c) There is considerable depth of the residual ridge
d) Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
13. The most accurate impression material for making the impression of an inlay cavity
a) Impression compound
b) Condensation type silicone
c) Polyvinyl siloxane
d) Polysulfides
14. To enhance strength properties of ceramic-metal restorations , it is important to
a) Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure
b) Build up thick layer of porcelain
c) Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure
d) Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure
Select the appropriate answer
1. a and b are correct
2. a and c are correct
3. b and c are correct
4. b and d are correct
15. Orthognathic ridge relationship (Class II) presents several problems, which should be taken into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all except:
a) Requires minimum interocclusal distance
b) Have great range of jaw movement in function
c) Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
16. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from
a) Thick posterior border
b) Denture underextended
c) Denture slightly overextended
d) a & b both are correct
17. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture. It is advisable to have
a) 1 – 2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b) Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate occlusion
c) The use of anterior teeth for incision
18. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the
a) Tuberosity
b) Fovea palatinae
c) Maxillary tori
d) Vibrating line
e) Posterior palatal seal
19. To a great extent , forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods
a) Proper location of occlusal rests
b) Selection of lingual bar major connector
c) Developing balanced occlusion
d) All of the above
20. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged patient who has worn maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular anterior teeth would probably show
a) Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
b) Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c) Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d) Insufficient inter occlusal distance
21. The posterior seal in upper complete denture serves the following functions
a) It reduces the patient discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the denture base
b) Retention of the maxillary denture
c) It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing
d) a & b both are correct
22. Dentures
a) Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration
b) The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted and tissue conditioning material is applied and periodically replaced until the tissue are recovered then making impression takes place
c) The patient is cautioned against removing the denture out at night
d) Both a & b are correct
e) All of the above are correct
23. Balanced occlusion refers to
a) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
b) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions
c) A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
24. Indications for the use of linguoplate include
a) For the purpose of retention
b) When the lingual frenum is high or when there is shallow lingual sulcus
c) To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
d) All of the above
25. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient, the physiological rest dimension
a) Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion
b) May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced
c) Is of little importance as it is subject to variations
d) Must always be together than vertical dimension of occlusion
26. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distance extension mandibular removable partial denture, a patient complains of a sensitive abutment tooth. Clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth. The most likely cause is
a) Defective occlusion
b) Exposed dentin at the bottom of the occlusal rest seat
c) Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in opposing occlusion
27. In recent years there has been evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack has been diminished in the more economically developed countries mainly because of the widespread use of
a) Artificial water fluoridation
b) Fluoride toothpaste
c) Dental health education programs
d) Individualized oral hygiene instruction
e) a & c
28. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community based preventive programs would be greater for
a) Dental caries
b) Periodontal disease
c) Dentofacial anomalies
d) Dental fluorosis
29. Dental caries is endemic disease means that the disease
a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
b) Is habitually present in human populations
c) Affects a large number of countries simultaneously
d) Exhibits a seasonal pattern
30. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which
a) Measures what is intended to be measured’
b) Produces repeatedly the same result under a variety of conditions
c) Detects reasonably small shifts, in either directions, in group condition
d) All of the above
31. In terms of caries prevention the most effective and the most cost effective method is
a) Community based programs
b) Privately based programs
c) Individually based programs
32. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate
a) Proximity of the roots to adjacent anatomical structures
b) Shape of the roots
c) Associated pathology
d) b & c
e) all of the above
33. The post operative complication after removal of third molar impaction
a) Secondary hemorrhage
b) Swelling’
c) Pain
d) Alveolar osteitis
e) All of the above
34. Patients on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because
a) The patient is more susceptible to infection
b) Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids’
c) Antibiotics inhibit Herksheimer reactions
d) Antibiotics protect the patient from steroid depletion
35. The periodontal tissues compromise which of the following tissues
a) Gingiva and PDL
b) Gingiva , PDL and alveolar bone
c) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone and cementum
d) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone , cementum and enamel
36. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement
a) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
b) Cyclosporine
c) Nifedipine (Calcium channel blocker)
d) Aspirin
e) None of the above
37. The function of periodontal ligament includes
a) Mechanical function
b) Formative function
c) Nutritive function
d) Sensory function
e) All of the above
38. Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to
a) Remove the attached plaque and calculus
b) Remove necrotic cementum
c) Change the root surface to become biocompatible
d) All of the above
e) a and b are correct
39. A 16 year old patient presents complaining of pain, bad breath, and bleeding gingivae. This began over the weekend while studying for the final examination the patient may have which of the following conditions
a) ANUG
b) Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c) Desquamative gingivitis
d) Acute periodontal cyst
40. Pit & fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissures of which of the following
a) Primary teeth
b) Permanent teeth
c) a & b
41. Teeth that have lost pit & fissure sealants show
a) The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b) Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth’
c) Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d) The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
42. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2?
a) 2% copper
b) 4% copper
c) 10% copper
d) 13% copper
43. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration
a) 30 degree
b) 60 degree
c) 90 degree
d) 130 degree
44. When do you do amalgam finishing
a) Immediately
b) 24 hour later
45. What is the best instrument used for removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall of Class II
a) Chisel
b) Hatchet
c) Gingival marginal trimmer
46. Acute periapical abscess associated with
a) Swelling
b) Widening of PDL
c) Pus discharge
47. Epidemiology can be defined as
a) A study of special areas of the skin
b) The study of the distribution and determinants of disease in man
c) Study of biological animals
d) Study of disease in research laboratory
48. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Same
49. Dental caries
a) Is transmissible disease
b) Is worldwide in distribution but uneven in intensity
c) Can be prevented
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
50. A glossy finish is best retained on a
a) Microfilled composite resin restoration
b) Macrofilled composite resin restoration
c) Hybrid composite resin restoration
d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
51. The most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is
a) Impression compound
b) Condensation type silicones
c) Polyvinyl siloxanes
d) Polysulfides
52. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the attached gingiva and hard palate
a) True
b) False
53. The functions of cement bases are
a) To act like barrier against acids or thermal shocks
b) The minimal thickness which is required is 0.5 mm of the base
Select the appropriate answer
1. a & b
2. a only
3. b only
4. none of the above
54. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics
1. Microleakage decreases with aging of the amalgam restoration
2. It is the least technique sensitive of all current dental restoration
3. High dimensional changes
Select the appropriate
1. 1, 2 & 3
2. 1 & 3
3. 1 & 2
4. 2 only
55. When polishing the amalgam restoration
a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b) Wait 24 hours
Select the appropriate
1. a & b
2. a only
3. b only
56. Silicate cements
a) First tooth colored restoration
b) It can be used as permanent restoration
c) It contains 15% fluoride
Select the appropriate
1. a , b and c
2. a & b
3. a & c
4. a only
57. Permeability of dentin
a) Bacterial products go through it
b) Decrease by formation of smear layer
c) Bacteria can go inside it
58. How can you prevent dentinal hypersensitivity?
a) Restoration by adhesion
b) Controlled by alcohol
c) Put sedative medication
59. Best way to select retainer for rubber dam
a) Contact all surface of the tooth
b) Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually with outrocking
c) Contact above the height of contour
60. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly
a) To advice the patients to change their faulty habits immediately
b) Reassure the patient that it will disappear by itself
c) To buy a new tooth brush
61. Which of the following statement is true regarding calculus
a) It is composed entirely of inorganic material
b) It is dense in nature and has a rough surface
c) It is mineralized dental plaque
d) All of the above
e) b & c
f) none of the above
62. Overhanging restoration margin should be removed because
a) It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b) It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment level
c) Stimulates inflammatory reaction directly
d) Its removal permits more effective plaque control
e) a & d
63. Chronic suppurative periodontitis
a) Patient complains of moderate pain
b) Fistula with pus discharge
c) Pulp polyp in open caries
64. Acute periodontal abscess
a) Fistula present
b) Swelling and enlargement in the site of the tooth
c) Variable degree of pain
d) None of the above
e) Establish incision and drainage
65. Main use of dental floss
a) Remove calculus
b) Remove overhangs
c) Remove bacterial plaque
d) Remove food debris
66. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radioopaque areas in the canine premolar area region of the mandible is
a) Hematoma
b) Remaining roots
c) Torus mandibularis
d) Internal oblique ridge
e) Genial tubercle
67. Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency
a) Lateral periodontal cyst
b) Squamous cell carcinoma of the jaw bones
c) Primordial cyst
d) Ameloblastoma
e) Osteomyelitis of the mandible
68. Early squamos cell carcinoma of the oral cavity presents as
a) Vesicle
b) A sessile mass
c) Red plaque
d) Ulcer
e) White cauliflower like lesion
69. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Mild hyperglycemia
c) Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agents
d) Anti depressant therapy
Select the appropriate combination
1. only a is correct
2. a and b are correct
3. b,c and d are correct
4. a,b,c and d are correct
70. Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with
a) An ameloblastoma
b) A basal cell carcinoma
c) An odontogenic fibroma
d) Squamous cell carcinoma
71. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on
a) Good medical and dental history
b) Proper clinical examination
c) Result of pulp vitality test
d) Periapical radiographs
e) All of the above
72. In ankylosis
a) There is no PDL
b) Caused by trauma
c) Extracted surgically
d) All of the above
73. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points?
a) Boiling
b) Autoclave
c) Chemical solutions
d) Dry heat sterilization
74. Distinguish periapical and periodontal abscess we use
a) X-ray examination
b) Clinical examination
c) Vitality of the pulp
75. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of endodontic therapy is
a) Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b) No response to percussion and palpation test
c) Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canal
d) None of the above
76. The access opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently
a) Oval
b) Square
c) Triangular
d) None of the above
77. What is the basis for the current endodontic therapy of periapical lesion
a) Due to reach collateral circulation system the periapical areas usually heal despite the condition of the root canal
b) If the source of the periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical healing is good
c) Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilize the canal and the periapical area to promote healing
d) Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst must be treated by surgical intervention
78. To enhance strength properties of ceramometal restoration, it is important to
1. avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure
2. build up thick layer of porcelain
3. porcelain should be uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal structure
4. compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure
Select the most appropriate
a) 1 & 2 are correct
b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 2 & 4 are correct
79. Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of
a) 2 maxillary arches
b) Maxillary arches and nasal arch
80. Reparative dentin
a) Same like secondary dentin
b) Happen at site of irritation
81. Enamel rods
a) In dentin
b) In enamel
82. When you take final impression for crown polysulfide rubber base, you should pour it
a) Within one hour
b) 24 hour
c) One week
83. Mandibular foramen in children
a) Above the occlusal plane
b) Below the occlusal plane
c) At the same level
84. When you give an inferior dental block for pedo the angulations for the needle
a) 7mm below the occlusal plane
b) 5mm below the occlusal plane
c) 7mm above the occlusal plane
d) At the occlusal plane
85. The maximum dose of an x-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique
a) 100 mini roentgen per week
b) 10 roentgen per week
c) 100 roentgen per week
d) 300 roentgen per week
86. The choice of LA depends on
a) Diameter of nerve
b) Structure of bone
c) Number of branches
d) Type of LA agent chemistry
87. A U Shaped radio opaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is
a) The zygomatic process
b) Maxillary sinus wall
c) Coronoid process of mandible
88. Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of tongue is related to paralysis of
a) Lingual nerve
b) Hypoglossal nerve
c) Chorda tympani nerve
d) Facial nerve
89. Periapical abscess is
a) Cavity lined by epithelium
b) Cavity containing blood cells
c) Cavity containing pus cells
d) Cavity containing serous
e) None of the above
90. Acute periapical abscess is characterized by
a) Varying degree of pain
b) Varying degree of swelling
c) Some times not shown on the radiograph
d) All of the above
91. Long bones formed by endochondral ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification and many bones by both mechanism
a) True
b) False
92. The material which release fluoride to be taken by enamel and cementum for a long time
a) Composite
b) GIC
c) Amalgam
d) Cast alloy
93. Epithelial tumor
a) Keratoacanthosis
b) Giant cell tumor
c) Rhabdomyoma
94. Patient with sub-acute endocarditis develop
a) Bacteremia
b) Septecemia
c) Fibril vibration
d) Mitral stenosis
95. The finish line of the core should be
a) At the finish line of final restoration
b) At contra bevel
c) At gingival level
d) Tapered with prepared tooth shape
96. For ceramo metal restoration type of finish line
a) Chamfer
b) Beveled shoulder
97. Adjustment of contact point
a) Pencil
b) Shimstock
c) Silicon spray indicator
d) Dental floss
e) None of the above
98. Benefits of opaque layer
a) Bonding to metal substrate
b) Initiating the color
c) a and b
99. Smear layer composed of
a) Dentin debris
b) Inorganic particles
c) Bacteria
d) All of the above
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呈偔ㄯㄮ㈠〰传ോ䐊瑡㩥䘠楲㈱䘠扥㈠‰㐰㌺㨰㐵䜠呍敓癲牥›灁捡敨㈯㈮ㄮ‴唨楮⥸洠摯獟汳㈯㈮ㄮ‴灏湥卓⽌⸰⸹永䐠噁㈯洠摯慟瑵彨慰獳桴潲杵⽨⸲‱牆湯側条⽥⸵⸰⸲㘲㔳ⵘ潐敷敲ⵤ祂›䡐⽐⸵⸲ㄱ潃瑮湥楄灳獯瑩潩㩮愠瑴捡浨湥㭴映汩湥浡㵥弢彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟琮瑸ഢ嘊牡㩹䄠捣灥湅潣楤杮潃瑮湥湅潣楤杮›穧灩潃瑮湥敌杮桴›㌱㘴ര䬊敥⵰汁癩㩥琠浩潥瑵ㄽⰰ洠硡㈽ഹ䌊湯敮瑣潩㩮䬠敥⵰汁癩䌊湯整瑮吭灹㩥甠歮潮湷甯歮潮湷ⵘ潇杯敬䌭慲汷䐭瑡㩥䘠楲㈱䘠扥㈠‰㐰㌺㨰㐵䜠呍اسئلة واجوبة من امتحان الهيئة السعودية للتخصصات الطبية - طب اسنان
تحية طيبة لكم زملائي
لم اعرف اين اضع هذه المشاركة والتي اتوقع ان تكون مفيدة خصوصا للراغبين في العمل بالسعودية حيث يتطلب ذلك اجتيازهم لامتحان كتابي في علوم طب الاسنان هو من اعداد وتنسيق شركة البرومترك العالمية لتنظيم الامتحانات
وقبل شروع احدكم بالقدوم سيكون هذا الامتحان شغله الشاغل ورفيقه بالاحلام واليقظة
ولن اطيل عليكم فهذه مجموعة من الاسئلة وضعتها بين ايديكم للاطلاع عليها واخذ فكرة عامة عن هذا الامتحان
واتمنى الفائدة للجميع
وهاي مجموعة من الاسئلة مع اجوبتها التي يغلب عليها بنسبة 99 بالمية انو صح والجواب الصحيح حطيت جنبو عدة نجمات وارجع اقول انو هاي مو من جهدي وانما من جهد طلاب طب اسنان ج.الملك سعود مشكورين والفضل لأهل الفضل يذكر مشان الحلال والحرام وانا كل مايصير عندي وقت راح انزل الاسئلة اللي مو موجوده بهذه المشاركة واتمنى للجميع الفائدة والتوفيق
what is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam resto...
a-30 degree
b- 60 degree
**c- 90 degree***
d- 130 degree
when you do amalgam finishing.....
a- immediately
**b- 24 hours later****
when polishing amalgam rest .....
1- avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
2- wait for 24 hours
3- all ***
the roof of mandibular fossa consist of:
***a-thin compact bone
b-spongy bone
c-cancellous bone
Q- what is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:
a- 2% copper
b- 4% copper
c- 10 % copper
***d- 13 % copper***
Q- pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissure:
a- in primary teeth
b- in permanent teeth
***c- a & b
Q- what is the best instrument used for removing UN SUPPORTED enamel at the gingival wall of class II:
a- chisel
b- hatchet
***c- gingival marginal trimmer
Q- teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show…
a- the same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b- higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
***c- lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d- the same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
Q- the periodontal tissue compromise which of the following tissue:
a- gingiva and PDL
b- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone
***c- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum
d- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum & enamel
Q- which of the following may cause gingival enlargement
***a- phenyntoin (dilantin)
b- cyclosporine
c- nifedipine ( a calcium channel blocker)
d- aspirin
e- none of the above
هنا كمان b ,c صح بس مو محطوطة ومابعرف ليش وغالبا سقطت سهوا من اللي نقلها بعد ماطلع من الامتحان ويجوز كان في خيار انو الثلاثة a.b.c
Q- the function of the periodontal ligament include
a- mechanical function
b- formative function
c- nutritive function
d- sensory function
***e- all of the above
Q- pt on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because
****a- the pt is more susceptible to infection
b- antibiotics are synergistic to steroids
c- antibiotic inhibits kerksheimer reaction
d-antibiotic protect the pt from steroid depletion
Q- periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to
a- remove the attached plaque and calculus
b- remove the necrotic cementum
c- change the root surface to become biocompatible
d- all of the above
e- a & b only
هنا كمان غالبا كل الاجابات صحيحة لأنو لازم يتحقق هذا الشي بعد المعالجة - اعادة الارتباط- ازالة الملاط المتمو- جعل سطح الجذر سليما وحيويا
Q- early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity present as:
a- vesicle
b- sessile mass
c- a red plaque
***d- an ulcer
e- a white cauliflower like lesion
Q- which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency:
a- lateral periodontal cyst
b- squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c- primordial cyst
***d- ameloblastoma
e- osteomylitis of the mandible
Q- firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with:
a- an ameloblastoma
b- a basal cell carcinoma
c- an odontogenic fibroma
***d- a squamous cell carcinoma
Q-Ankylosis:
a- no PDL
b- caused by trauma
c- extracted surgically
***d- all of the above
Q- the following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:
1-hypoglycemia
2- mild hyperglycemia
3- anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent
4- anti depressant therapy
a- 1 only is correct
b- 1& 2 are correct
c- 2,3 &4 are correct
***d-1,2,3 &4 are correct
Q- one of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the attached gingival and hard palate:
a- true
***b- false
لأنو ما يكون على الهارد بالت
1. Compomer restorative materials are:
a. Glass ionomer with polymer components
***b. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses
c. Composite resin for cervical restorations only
2. A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a. Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b. Macrofilled resin restoration.
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d. Fiber re -inforced composite resin restoration
3. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:
a. No. 330 Tungsten carbide bur.
b. Mounted stone.
***c. 12- fluted carbide bur.
d. Coarse diamond point (stone).
4. The functions of cement bases are:
1-To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2-The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
b. None of the above.
***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only.
5. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
1- Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
2- it is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
3-High dimensional changes.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1 and 3.
***c. 1 and 2.
d. 2 only.
6. Silicate cement:
1-First tooth colored restoration.
2-It can be used as permanent filling.
3-It contains 15 % fluoride.
a. 1, 2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
***c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 only
7. . The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are :
a. Greater
b. Less
***c. The same
Q- radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radio opaque areas in the canine-premolar region of the mandible is:
a-hematoma
b- remaining roots
***c- tours mandibularis
d- internal oplique ridge
e- genial tubercle
Q- dental carries is an endemic disease "means that the disease is:
a- occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
****b- is habitually present in human population
c- affect large number of countries simultaneously
d- exhibit a seasonal pattern
Q- in countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community –based preventive programs would be greater for:
***a- dental caries
b-periodontal disease
c- dentofacial anomalies
d- dental floozies.
The functions of cement bases are:
1-To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2-The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
b. None of the above.
***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only
Q- the x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
***a- periapical x-ray
b- bitewing x-ray
c- occlusal x-ray
d- non of the above
في نقاش بوحدا من النوط انو الاسنان الامامية افضل وسيلة هي بالاشعة المتألقة - بالعربي نسيت ايش ترجمتها بالضبط يعني الجواب رقم d بس لما نشوف صيغة السؤال نلاقي حدد الاكس راي حصرا ومعناتو الجواب هنا مثل مو مختار
Q- in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
***a- community based programs
b- private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q- radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a- proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q- the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c- pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above
Q- acute periapical abcess associated with
***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q- epidemiology can be defined as :
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q- dental caries :
a- is a transmissible disease
b- is world wide in distribution
c- can be prevented
***d- all of the above
e- non of the above
Q- the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
- At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:
a- Prismless enamel
***b- DEJ
c-Center of enamel Prisms
d-Edge of enamel Prisms
e-Facial enamel
- The Function of cement bases are:
1-act a like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2- The minimal thickness, which is required is .05 mm of base
a-1+2
b-none of the above
***c-1 only
d-2 only
- A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a- Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b- Macro filled composite resin restoration.
c-Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d- Fiber re-inforced composite resin restoration
.
in chronic suppurative periodontitis:
a - pt. complain from moderate pain
***b- fistula with drain
c- pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion
blood supply of the palate is from:
a- greater palatine artery
b-lesser palatine artery
c- facial artery
d- long sphenopalatine artery
e- anatomising braches from all of the above except c
هنا ماعندي الجواب الصح مافي كتاب تشريح جنبي وحتى بالموقع كان نقاشهم مو واضح للوصول للجواب الصح بس غالبا هو e انا المشكلة كانت عندي ياشباب باللغة فرق بين انك تدرس طول اخمس سنين بالعربي ويجي تمتحن اخر شي بالانكليزي
mandibular branch of tigiminal nerve leaves the skull through:
a- foramen rotundum
***b- foramen ovale
c-superior orbital fissure
d-inferior orbital fissure
e- juglar foramen
Q- in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
***a- community based programs
b- private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q- radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a- proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q- the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c- pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above
Q- acute periapical abcess associated with
***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q- epidemiology can be defined as :
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q- dental caries :
a- is a transmissible disease
b- is world wide in distribution
c- can be prevented
***d- all of the above
e- non of the above
Q- the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
Q- formicrisol when used should be :
a- full Saturated
b- half saturated
***c- fifth saturated
d- non of the above
Q- the PH of the calcium hydroxide is:
a- 7.2
***b- 12
c- 19
d-5.5
Q- the irrigation solution is good because:
a- lubricate the canals
b- flushes the debris
c- non of the above
***d- all of the above
Q- an 18 years old pt present complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival. This began over the weekend while studying for the final exam.the pt may have which of the following conditions:
***a- acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
b- rapidly progressive periodontitis
c- desquamative gingivitis
d- acute periodontal cyst
Q- best way to select retainer for rubber dam
a- contact all surface of the tooth
***b- four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking
c- contact above the height of contour
permeability of dentine:
**a- bacterial products go through it
**b- decrease by formation of smear layer
**c- bacteria can go in
هذا الجواب احتارو في العلماء
Q- how can you prevent dental hyper sensitivity
***a- restoration by adhesion
b- controlled by alcohol
c- put sedative medication
Q- overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:
a- it provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b- it tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss
c- stimulate inflammatory reaction directly
d- its removal permits more effective plaque control
e- a & d
***e- a & d
Q- which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points
a- boiling
b- autoclave
***c- chemical solutions
d- dry heat sterilization
Q- the radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy
***a- reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b- no response to percussion and palpation test
c- extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals
d- non of the above
Q- the accesses opening for amaxillary premolar is most frequently
***a- oval
b- square
c- triangular
d- non of the above
Q- mandibular foramen in children
a- above the occlusal plane
***b- below the occlusal plane
c- at the level
Q- a U- shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is
***a- the zygomatic process
b- maxillary sinus wall
Q- loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of
***a- lingual nerve
b- hypoglossal nerve
c- chorda tympani nerve
Q- long bone formed by endochondrial ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification and many bones by booth mechanisms
***a- true
b-false
Q- the choice of local anesthesia depend on :
a- diameter of the nerve
b- structure of the bone
c- number of branches
***d- type of L.A agent chemistry
Q- when you give inferior dental block for pedo pt the angulations for the needle
a- 7 mm below the occlusal plane
b- 5 mm below the occlusal plane
c- 7 mm above the occlusal plane
***d- at the occlusal plane
Q- main use of dental fioss
a- remove calculus
b- remove over hang
***؟؟c- remove bacterial plaque
***؟؟d- remove food debris
The following are types of hamartoma except:30-
***a-CementobLastoma
b-Compound odontoma
c-Complex odontoma
Most common Benign Tumer in oral cavity is:31-
a-Fibroma(AmdobLashic pibroma)
هو الجواب الصح وما اذكر ايش كانت الخيارات الثانية
In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in Length:39-
***a-FiLi form
b-Fungi form
c-Foliate
d-Circumvallates
Which most common salivary gland neoplasm:41-
a-Pleomorphic adenoma
كمان هو الصح
Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:42-
a-submandiuLar gland
***b-sublingual gland
Ranula Can be treated by:43-
***a-Excision
b-Cauterization
c-Incision
d-Marsuplization
كان في نقاش على الطريقة الفعالة للتخلص من الكيس الضفدعي بس غالبا انو اول شي ومباشرة بالاستئصال وبعضهم يقو لا اول شي بالتكوية - يعني d واذا نكست الحالة نروح على الشق والاستئصال
35- Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina?
a-SubmandibuLar and masticatory spaces
b-SubLinguaL+Lat.Pha.space
****c-SubmandibuLar+SubLinguaL+submentaL
33- Neoplasm that spread by Lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reach the:
a-PreauricuLar Lymph nodes
***b-mental Lymph nodes
***c-submandibuLar Lymph nodes
d-Pterygoid plexus
e-juguLo-digastric nodes
45- In radiographs, which disease cause multiple radiolucencies
a-Hypothyroidism
***b-Hyperparathyroidism
c-Ricket disease
Aplastic anemia is caused by:46-
a-Tetracycline
b-penicillin
c-Erythromycin
***d-Sulfonamide
49- The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
***a-Osmosis
b-Active transport
c-Filtration
d-Diffusion
50- Cell that can give more than one type:
a- Fibroblast
b- Odontoblast
***c- Mesenchymal cellِ
high rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a- cahnge direction of forces accuring here
***b- long canine root
c- lower boreder is thin in this area
d- alveolus is thin in this area
شخصيا كمان الجواب الاول صح لأنو تغير اتجاه القوة يحدث بهاي المنطقة والمهم اذا ما كان في خيار يقول انو الاثنين صح فنختار طول الجذر لأنو الاصح
what is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain
a- 20 mg/ml
b- 1.8 mg/ml
***c- 3.6 mg
non odontogenic Lesion similar to Endo Lesion:32-
a-Hyperparathyroidism
***b-initial stage of comental dysplasia
c-ossifying Fibroma
d-Dentigeaus cyst
e-ameLobLastoma
f-Lateral periodontal cyst
j-myxoma & Hemangieoma
Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life?36-
a-Herpes Simplex
b-Herpes zoster
c-varecilla Virus
****d-None of the above
38- The scientific evidence in dictating that oral Lichen pLanus is a "premalignant Lesion" is:
a-Very strong
b-Non-existent
c-Moderately strong
***d-Weak
47- Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because
***a-marrow spaces are wide
b-Affect growth centre
c-Hypo calcification in enamel
44- 10 years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the disease:
a-Fibrous dysphasia
***b-Cherubim
c-polymorphic adenoma
48- AchiLd came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication;
the condition is described as:
a-Epilepsy
***b-Cerebral palsy
Odontogenic infection can cause Least complication:37-
a-Pulmonary abscess
b-Peritonitis
c-Prosthetic valve infection
***d-cavernous sinus thrombosis
The Common disease affecting the submandibuLar salivary gland is:
***a-salivary calculi
b-pleomorphic adenomas
c-Viral sialoadenitis
d-Infected sialoadenitis
The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
a- failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
b- lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
***c- lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts
d- lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
Polyether impression materials:
a- are less stable dimensionally than poly sulfide rubber
b- are less stiff than poly sulfide rubber
****c- can absorb water and swell if stored in water
an anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:
a- abutment teeth are not carious
b- an abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound
***c- there is considerable resorption of the residual ridges
d- crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
the most accurate impression material for making the impression of an onlay cavity:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicone
***c- polyvinyl siloxane
d- polysulfide
for the ceramometal restorations,the type of finish line is:
***a- chamfer
b- beveled shoulder
adjustment of contact point :
a- pincile
***b- shim stock
c- siloicon spray indicator
d- dental floss
e- non of the above
benefits of opaque porcelain layer:
a- bonding the metal structure
b- initiating the color
***c- a & b
orthognathic ridge relationship (class II) present several problems which should be taken into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all EXCEPT:
***a- require minimum interocclusal distance
b- have a great range of jaw movement
c- require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:
***a- 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b- definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior teeth for incision
the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the:
a- tuberosity
b- fovea palatine
c- maxillary tori
***d- vibrating line
e- posterior palatal seal
an examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged pt who has worm maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular teeth would probably show:
a- cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
***b- loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c- flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d- insufficient inter occlusal distance
the posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions:
a- it reduces pt discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the denture base
b- retention of the maxillary denture
c- it compensate for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing
***d- …..& b are correct
المرجع.....
b & c لقيتهم مذكورين في الdecks>>> بس a كمان شكلها صح...لو فيهall of the above انا اختارها..
balanced occlusion refers to:
a- the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
***b- the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions
c- a type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
the indication for the use lingual plate major connector include:
a- for the purpose of retention
b- when the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus
c- to prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
***d- all of the above
in registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous pt, the physiological rest position:
a- is equal to the vertical dimension of occlusion
b- may be exceeded if the appearance of the pt is enhanced
c- is of a little importance as it is subjected to variations
***d- must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion
three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial denture, a pt complained of a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth, the most likely cause is:
***a-defective occlusion
b- exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats
c- galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration restoration in the abutment tooth
to enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to:
a- avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure
b- build up thick layer of porcelain
c- porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure
d- compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure
e- 1 & 2 are correct
***f- 1 & 3 are correct
g- 2 and 4 are correct
the finish line of the core should be:
a- at the finish line of the final restoration
***b- at contra bevel
c- at gingival level
d- tapered with prepared tooth shape
nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from:
a- thick posterior border
b- denture under extended
c- denture slightly over extended
***d- a & b are correct
to a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods:
***a- proper location of the occlusal rests
b- selection of lingual bar major connector
c- developing balanced occlusion
d- all of the above
المرجع....
حست في هذا السؤال شوي .بس c اكيد مو صح لانه الbalanced occ هذا concept يستخدم في الsetting of complete denture teeth بس مو لما يكون عندنا natural teeth.
و الb>> عليها كلام لانه لو قال lingual plate كان قلنا ممكن....
a هي اكثر وحده منطقيه لانهrests هي الي تساعد to direct ال occlusal forces along the long accses of the abutment tooth
هذا والله اعلم......
هذا الكلام نقلا عن المنتدى الذي تم فيه النقاش
wich cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
a-trigeminal n.
***b-facial n.
c-vagus n.
d-vestibalcochealer n.
ligaments associated with TMJ:
a-tempromandibular
b-sphenomandibular
c-stylomandibular
***d-all of the above
Ref * : The lateral temporamandibular ligament : limits the movement of the mandible in a posterior
Eruption cyst "eruption hematoma" can be treated by:11-
***a-No treatment
b-Immediate incision
c-Complete uncoverage
d-Observe for one week then incise
Cholesterol crystals are found in:12-
a-Keratocyst
***b-Periodontal cyst
Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:15-
a-Unerupted permanent maxillary canines
***b-Unerupted mandibular third molars
16- Histopathologically , dentigerous cyst Lining epithelium may be:
a-CuboidaL in type
***b-Stratified squamous in type
c-Reduced enamel epithelium
d-ALL of the above
ThyrogLossaL duct cysts:17-
a-Are only found in the posterior tongue
b-Clinically present in the Lateral neck tissue
***c-May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyrogLossaL duct
d-Are sometimes called Lympho-epithelial cysts
Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm?18-
a-Rhabdomyoma
b-Fibroma
c-Lipoma
d-Granular Cell tumor
***e-Keratoacanthoma
19- Unilateral swelling + slowly progressing Lesion on the Left side of the mandible. This could be:
a-osteoma
b-CementobLastoma
***c-Ossifying Fibroma
d-Osteo-sarcom
Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma;20-
***a-Postero-LateraL border of tongue
b-Floor of the mouth
c-Buccal mucosa
d-Lip
e-Skin
Apical periodontal cyst arise from:13-
a-Hertwig sheath
***b-Epithelial cell rest of malassez
Which is the most Likely cause of periodontal cyst?14-
a-Cell Rest of Malassez
b-Cell rest of serss
***c-Cell of Hertwig sheet
5- The process of attraction of NeutrophiLs to a site of Local tissue injury is called:
a-Phagocytosis
b-Diapedesis
***c-Chemotaxis
d-Epistaxis
Action of Histamine:6-
**a-Vasodilatation
**b-Permeability
**c-Chemokinesis
***d-bronchospasm
Formation of latral periodontal cyst due to
a-Nasolacrimal cyst
b-Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
c-Epithelial rest of maLassaz
****d-The epithelial rests or glands of Serres
the following structures open into the middel meatus:
a-nasolacrimal duct
b-posteror ethmoidal sinus
c-maxillary sinus
d-sphenoid sinus
e-anterior ethmoidal sinus
1- a,b &d
2- a & b
***3- c & e
4- all of the above
mastoid process is part of:
***a-temporal bone
b-parital bone
c-occiptal bone
d-frontal bone
.
.
The term acanthosis refers to:22-
a-A decreased production of keratin
b-An increased production of keratin
***c-An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone (stratum spinosum)
d-None of the above
.
The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:21-
***a-Fibroma
b-Papiloma
c-Lipoma
23- The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
***c-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma
d-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous Low grade adenocarcinoma
24- The moat common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a-Osteochondrosarcoma
****b-Osteosarcoma
c-Leiomyosarcoma
d-Chondrosarcoma
25- The majority of intra-oral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:
a-Poorly differentiated
***b-Well moderately differentiated
c-Spindle cell in type
d-Carcinoma in situ
Histopathologically , early verrucous carcinomas:26-
***a-Have characteristic microscopic features
b-can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c-Can be confused with Lichen pLanus
d-Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
27- Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma in characterized by islands of:
a-Basophilic islands of tumor/cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartiLage
b-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance
***???[c-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance and evidence of serous acini
d-Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini
28- The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:
a-Homogenous Leukoplakia
***b-Erythroplakia
c-Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d-Speckled Leukoplakia
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:29-
a-Always originates within the surface epithelium
***b-Mostly originates within the surface epithelium
c-Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue
d-Always originates from Langerhans cells within epithelium
المهم اتمنى الفائدة والنجاح لمن هو على ابواب الامتحان
Sample Exam Paper 2
1. Principle of Dental Elevator is for all except:
a) Wheel and Axis
b) Wedging
c) Lever
d) Wedging of the socket wall CORRECT
2. CMCP ( Camphorated Mono chlorophenol) contains phenol in conctn :
a) 0.5%
b) 35% CORRECT
c) 65%
d) 5%
3. Anterior Open bite is caused by :
a) Unilateral condylar fracture
b) Bilateral condylar fracture CORRECT
c) Lefort II fracture
d) Zygomatic fracture
4. Indirect pulp capping is done in :
a) Primary molar CORRECT 2
b) Primary incisor
c) Permanent molar CORRECT 1
d) None of the above
5. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct composite except :
a) Efficient polymerization
b) Good contact proximally
c) Gingival seal
d) Good retention CORRECT
6. After Class V glass ionomer restoration , removal of a thin flush of glass ionomer is done by:
a) Scaler or knife immediately
b) Finishing stone immediately
c) Scaler or knife later
d) Finishing stone later
Choose the correct option:
a) A+B
b) A+D CORRECT
c) C+D
7. The best finished composite surface is achieved by :
a) 12 fluted bur CORRECT
b) Diamond bur
c) Matrix band with no additional finish
8. In class V composite restoration a layer of bonding agent is applied:
a) Following removal of excess composite then cured CORRECT
b) Following removal of excess composite then not cured
c) Cured then remove excess cement’
9. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration may be due to :
a) Not enough bulk of dentin ( undermined enamel)
b) Corrosion
c) Over carving
d) Improper manipulation of amalgam
Select the appropriate choice
a) A+B
b) C+D
c) B+C+D
d) All of the above CORRECT
10. Length of pins must be equal in both tooth and restoration by a depth :
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm CORRECT
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm
11. Stainless steel pins is used in amalgam for:
a) Increase retention CORRECT
b) Increase resistance
c) Increase strength
d) Both a & b
12. Ca channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion
a) True
b) False CORRECT
13. RCT is contraindicated in:
a) Vertical fracture of root CORRECT
b) Diabetic patient
c) Unrestored teeth
d) Periodontally involved teeth
14. What can we use under composite restoration?
a) CaOH CORRECT
b) ZOE
c) Reinforced ZOE
d) Zinc phosphate
(Primarily GIC is used)
15. Gutta-percha contains mainly:
a) Gutta percha
b) Zinc oxide CORRECT
c) Zinc phosphate
d) Beeswax
16. Single rooted anterior teeth needs endodontic treatment which is best treated by:
a) Casted post n core CORRECT
b) Preformed post n composite
c) Preformed post n amalgam
d) Composite post n core
17. one of the anatomical landmark is:
a) ala tragus line CORRECT
b) ala orbital line
c) Frankfurt horizontal plane
18. the pH of CaOH is equal to:
a) 5.5
b) 7.5
c) 12.5 CORRECT
d) 19.5
19. Hyperemia result in:
a) Trauma from occlusion
b) Pain of short duration CORRECT
c) Radiographic changes
d) All of the above for short duration
20. Interproximal caries of anterior teeth is best detected by:
a) Periapical X-ray film CORRECT
b) Bitewing X-ray film( bite wings are not used for anteriors)
c) Occlusal X-ray film
d) None of the above
21. Mandibular foramen in young children is:
a) At the level of the occlusal plane
b) Above the level of occlusal plane
c) Anterior to level of occlusal plane
d) Below the level of occlusal plane CORRECT
22. Rubber dam is used in pedodontics:
a) For visibility and accessibility
b) To protect pt. against swallowing any foreign material
c) For a sterile field
d) a + b CORRECT
23. In primary teeth, pathological changes in radiographs are always seen :
a) Periapical area
b) Furcation area CORRECT
c) Alveolar crest
d) At the base of developing teeth
24. Eruption cyst “Eruption hematoma” can be treated by:
a) No treatment CORRECT
b) Immediate incision
c) Complete coverage
d) Observe for one week then incise
25. After trauma a tooth becomes yellowish in color this is due to :
a) Necrotic pulp
b) Irreversible pulpitis
c) Pulp is partially or completely obliterated
d) Hemorrhage in the pulp CORRECT
26. Step deformity of mandibular body fracture may be due to :
a) Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle
b) Upward pull of masseter and temporalis CORRECT
c) Inward pull of medial pterygoid muscle
d) Downward pull of geniohyoid and mylohyoid
27. In gamma 2 amalgam, the amount of Cu is:
a) 13.1 CORRECT
b) 21.5
c) 16.2
d) 30.5
28. Inorganic material in bone comprises of :
a) 65% CORRECT
b) 25%
c) 10%
d) 95%
29. Facial nerve supplies:
a) Masseter muscle
b) Temporalis muscle
c) Buccinators muscle CORRECT
d) Mylohyoid muscle
30. polishing bur has ;
a) less than 6 blades
b) 6-7 blades
c) 10-12 blades
d) More than 12 blades CORRECT
31. Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by;
a) Slowly injection
b) Talking to the child during injection
c) Using long needle
d) A + B CORRECT
32. Rubber dam is contraindicated in:
a) Pt. with nasal obstruction CORRECT 2
b) Mentally retarded patient
c) Uncooperative child
d) a + b CORRECT 1
33. Ranula can be treated by:
a) Excision
b) Cauterization
c) Incision
d) Marsupialization CORRECT
34. The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is :
a) Excisional biopsy CORRECT
b) Incisional biopsy
c) Aspiration through needle
d) Punch biopsy
e) Fine needle aspiration cytology
35. In maxillary 1st molars 4th canal is found in :
a) MB root CORRECT
b) DB root
c) Palatal root
36. Formacresol, when used should be in its :
a) Full concentration
b) Half concentration
c) Fifth concentration CORRECT
d) None of the above
37. 10 years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the disease:
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Cherubism CORRECT
c) Pleomorphic adenoma
38. Pt. complains from pain in #45 which had gold onlay the pain could be due to :
a) Chemicals from the cement
b) High thermal conductivity of gold CORRECT
c) Related to periodontal ligament
39. Irrigation solutions are used in endodontics to :
a) Lubricate the canals
b) Flushes the debris
c) Bactericidal effect
d) All the above CORRECT
40. Which is most common :
a) Cleft lip
b) Cleft palate
c) Bifid tongue
d) Cleft lip and palate CORRECT
41. Which nerve passes through petrous part of temporal bone:
a) V
b) VII CORRECT
c) IX
d) VIII
42. Fracture of upper central incisor in 8 year old child results in pulp exposure how will u manage this case?
a) Apexification
b) Pulpotomy CORRECT
c) RCT
43. 21 years old patient with pathological exposure in #35 management is :
a) Direct pulp capping CORRECT
b) Indirect pulp capping
c) Root canal treatment
44. During examination #34 shows gingival recession buccally, the least correct reason is:
a) Frenum attachment
b) Pt. is right hand brusher
c) Occlusal force CORRECT
d) Inadequate gingiva
45. Hypercementosis :
a) Occurs in Pagets disease
b) Difficult to extract
c) Bulbous root
d) Easy to manage by elevator
Select the correct answer:
a) a + b
b) a + d
c) All the above CORRECT
46. For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:
a) 1.5 mm CORRECT
b) 2 mm
c) 1 mm
d) 2.5 mm
(Actually answer should have been 1 mm)
47. Thickness of porcelain should be:
a) 0.3 – 0.5 mm
b) 0.05 – 0.15 mm
c) 0.5 – 1.5 mm
d) 1.7-2.5 mm CORRECT
48. Class II composite resin is lined by :
a) GIC CORRECT
b) Reinforced ZOE
c) ZOE with ortho epoxy cement
d) Cavity varnish
49. Occlusal plane is :
a) Above the level of the tongue
b) Below the level of the tongue CORRECT
50. Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origins?
a) 1
b) 2 CORRECT
c) 5
d) 7
51. During intra uterine life, embryo become fetus in:
a) 1st week
b) 1st month
c) 2nd month
d) 3rd month CORRECT
52. All are single bone in the skull except:
a) Lacrimal CORRECT
b) Occipital
c) Sphenoid
d) Vomer
53. Foramen ovale is in the following bone:
a) Parietal bone
b) Temporal bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Sphenoid CORRECT
54. In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in length?
a) Filiform CORRECT
b) Fungi form
c) Foliate
d) Circumvallate
55. coronal suture is between:
a) occipital and temporal
b) frontal and parietal CORRECT
c) occipital and tympanic
56. During instrumentation sudden disappear of root canal due to :
a) Bifurcation of main canal CORRECT
b) Apical perforation
c) Calcification
57. When should a child be first exposed for using tooth brush :
a) At eruption of the first tooth
b) 1 year CORRECT
c) 2 years
d) Primary school year
(Actual is from one to two years of age)
58. Early loss of anterior teeth :
a) Affects phonetics
b) Affects aesthetics
c) Causes space loss
d) a + b
e) all of the above CORRECT
59. Amount of GP should be left after post preparation
a) 1 mm
b) 4-5 mm CORRECT
c) 10 mm
d) None of the above
60. What is the number of pharyngeal “Branchial”arches?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6 CORRECT
d) 7
61. What is the name of the 1st pharyngeal arch?
a) Maxillary
b) Mandibular CORRECT
62. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
a) ½ intercuspal distance
b) 1/3 intercuspal distance CORRECT
c) ¾ intercuspal distance
63. Polyvinyl siloxane compared with polysulfide:
a) Can be poured more than once
b) Can be poured after 7 days
c) Less dimensional stability
d) a + b CORRECT
64. Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child
a) Mentally retarded
b) Positive resistance
c) Uncooperative
d) Hysterical CORRECT
65. Space loss occurs in:
a) Proximal caries
b) Early extraction CORRECT
c) Ankylosis
d) All of the above
66. After amalgam trituration, the mix should be placed within:
a) 1 min
b) 3 min
c) 5 min CORRECT
d) 10 min
67. Pits & fissure sealants are indicated in:
a) Deep pits & fissures
b) Newly erupted teeth
c) Both a & b CORRECT
68. Apthous ulcer as compared with Herpetic ulcer is:
a) Apthous is more characteristic in histology
b) Apthous leaves a scar
c) Apthous is less responsive to stress
d) Apthous occurs in the lining mucosa
e) b+ d CORRECT
69. Squamos cell carcinoma is derived from:
a) Epithelial tissue CORRECT
b) Connective tissue
70. Syphilis first appearance :
a) Multiple vesicle
b) Erythematous reaction
c) Ulcer CORRECT
d) Bullae
71. Management knife edge ridge in complete dentures
a) Reline with resilient material CORRECT
b) Maximum coverage
c) Wide occlusal table
(Actual answer is surgically recontouring the ridge)
72. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesn’t cause fluorosis because
a) Its not the same fluoride that causes fluorosis
b) Teeth already calcified CORRECT
c) Calcium in the mouth counter
d) Saliva wash it out
73. The antibiotic of choice in endodontics
a) Metronidazole
b) Penicillin CORRECT
c) Tetracycline
74. Veruccous carcinoma is :
a) Malignant CORRECT
b) Benign
75. Suture most commonly used in the oral cavity
a) Black silk CORRECT
b) Catgut
c) Chromic
76. In combined endo- perio problems:
a) Start with the endodontic treatment CORRECT
b) Start with the periodontic treatment
77. Tooth fracture during extraction may occur due to :
a) Nonvital tooth
b) Diabetic pt
c) Improper holding by forceps
d) a + c CORRECT
78. After scaling and root planing healing occurs by:
a) Long junctional epithelium
b) New attachment CORRECT
79. Caries consists of :
a) Bacteria CORRECT
b) Fluid
c) Epithelial cells
80. Post retention depends on :
1) Post length
2) Post diameter
3) Post texture
4) Core shape
5) Design of the prosthesis
a) 1+2
b) 1+2+3
c) All of the above CORRECT
d) Only 1
81. Amount of reduction in PFM crown:
a) 1.5 – 2 mm CORRECT
b) 1.7 – 2 mm
c) 2 – 5 mm
82. AH26 is the root canal sealer consists of :
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Epoxy resin CORRECT
83. Most common site of oral squamos cell carcinoma
a) Posterolateral border of the tongue CORRECT
b) Floor of the mouth
c) Buccal mucosa
d) Lip
e) Skin
84. Dentinogenesis imperfecta patient can suffer from the following except:
a) Fracture bone
b) Fracture enamel
c) Blue sclera
d) Pagets disease CORRECT
e) Supernumerary teeth
85. 5 years old child lost his upper right 1st primary molar, the best space maintainer is :
a) Lingual bar
b) Crown and loop
c) Band and loop CORRECT
86. In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme is:
a) Flush terminal
b) Mesial step CORRECT
c) Distal step
87. When you give a child a gift for good behavior this is called:
a) Positive reinforcement CORRECT
b) Negative reinforcement
88. Hairy leukoplakia may be caused by :
a) Broad spectrum antibiotic
b) Hydrogen peroxide mouthwash
c) Systemic steroids
d) Heavy smokers
e) All of the above probable
89. Bacteria in endodontic pathosis is:
a) Porphyromonous endodontalis obligate anaerobe CORRECT
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Streptococcus aureus
90. In distal extension partial denture during relining occlusal rest was not seated what will u do in this case?
a) Remove impression and repeat it probable
b) Continue and seat it after relining
c) Use impression compound
91. After taking alginate impression:
a) Wash with water and spray with sodium hypochlorite for 10 secs
b) Same but wait 5-10 min and then put it in sealed plastic bag CORRECT
92. Polyether is:
a) Less stable than polysulfide
b) Less stiff than polysulfide
c) Can absorb water and swell CORRECT
93. Many parts of bone are originally cartilaginous that replaced by bone , is the statement
a) True CORRECT
b) False
94. Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth
a) MB root appear distal to P if cone is directed M to D CORRECT
b) DB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D
95. The following are multilocular radiolucencies in X-ray except:
a) Ameloblastoma
b) Odontogenic keratocyst
c) Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst CORRECT
d) Myxoma
96. Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if :
a) Occlusal plane above the tongue
b) Occlusal plane below the tongue
c) Occlusal plane at lower lip
d) None of the above CORRECT
(Actual answer is increased vertical dimension)
97. Occlusal plane should be:
a) Parallel to the interpupillary line
b) Parallel to the ala tragus line
c) At rest tongue is just above the occlusal plane
d) All of the above CORRECT
98. 33 years old female pt. came with slow growing swelling in the angle of the mandible radiograph show radio-opaque with radio- lucent border diagnosis
a) Osteoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Cementoblastoma CORRECT
99. 20 years old male pt. came with severe pain on chewing related to lower left first molar, intraoral examination reveals no caries , good oral hygiene, no changes in radiograph pt. gives history of bridge cementation 3 days ago the diagnosis :
a) Pulp necrosis CORRECT
b) Acute apical periodontitis
c) Chronic apical abscess
100. 6 year old child has # 74 and #84 extracted the best space maintainer is
a) Lingual arch
b) Bilateral band and loop CORRECT
c) Bilateral distal shoe
d) No need for space maintainer
101. Mobility in midface with step deformity in front zygomatic suture diagnosis is :
a) Lefort III
b) Lefort II CORRECT
c) Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture
102. Patient with lower complete denture, intraoral examination shows white slightly elevated lesion with confined border. Patient gives history of ill-fitting denture. It can be managed by :
a) Immediate surgical removal CORRECT
b) Instruct patient not to use denture for 2 weeks then follow up
c) Reassure patient and no need for treatment
103. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous pt. before construction of denture determines stability, support and retention related to the ridge
a) True CORRECT
b) False
104. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly pt. for construction of lower denture easily displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of the ridge. Management is :
a) Minor surgery is needed
b) Inform the patient that retention of denture will decrease
c) Special impression technique is required CORRECT
105. Class III jaw relation in edentulous pt.
a) Will affect size of maxillary teeth
b) Affect retention of lower denture
c) Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture
d) All of the above CORRECT
106. In recording mand-max jaw relation, the best material used without producing pressure is:
a) Wax
b) Compound
c) Bite registration paste CORRECT
107. In recording jaw relation, best to use:
a) Occlusal rim with record CORRECT
b) Occlusal rim with base wax
c) Occlusal rim with metal frame
108. To recheck the centric relation in complete denture:
a) Ask the patient to swallow and close CORRECT
b) Ask the patient to place tip of the tongue in posterior area of denture and close
c) To wet his lips and tongue
d) All of the above
109. By aging , pulp tissue will:
a) Decrease in collagen fibers
b) Increase cellularity and vascularity
c) Decrease in size CORRECT
110. Complete blood count “CBC” is a laboratory test important in dentistry:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
111. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of the major connector depends on:
a) Height of the lingual attachment
b) Mandibular tori
c) Periodontal condition of the remaining teeth
d) All of the above CORRECT
112. Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:
a) Dissolves in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling
b) Very toxic , contains formaldehyde
c) Contains corticosteroids CORRECT
d) All of the above
113. Sealer is used in RCT to :
a) Fill in voids’ CORRECT
b) Increase the strength of RC filling
114. Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following except:
a) Radiolucent in radiograph
b) Biocompatible
c) Easily removable when retreatment is necessary CORRECT
115. Cause that the master GP not reaching working length although it is the same size of last file
a) Dental debris
b) Ledge formation
c) a & b CORRECT
d) none of the above
116. Follow up of RCT after 3 years , RC failed best treatment is to:
a) Extraction of the tooth
b) Redo the RCT CORRECT
c) Apicectomy
117. Clinical measure performed in recall of the RCT is:
a) Reduce size of the pathological lesion
b) No pain at percussion & palpation CORRECT
c) Presence of acute inflammatory cells
118. Main apical foramen located
a) Very often lateral to the apex CORRECT
b) Always apex
c) At the lateral canal
119. Small access opening in upper central incisor leads to
a) Complete removal of the pulp
b) Incomplete removal of the pulp CORRECT
c) Conservative restoration
120. Restoration of the anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge and small M & D caries is by
a) Full crown
b) Composite restoration
c) Porcelain jacket crown CORRECT
121. Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate M & D caries is best restored by :
a) Amalgam
b) ¾ crown CORRECT 1
c) Full crown CORRECT 2
d) Onlay
122. MOD amalgam restoration with deep proximal mesial box pt comes with pain related to it after 1 month due to:
a) Pulp involvement CORRECT
b) Supra occlusion
c) Open contact
d) Gingival recession
123. Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:
a) 1 – 1.5 mm
b) 1.5 – 2 mm CORRECT
c) 2 – 3 mm
d) 3 – 5 mm
124. When aesthetics is important , posterior class I composite is done in :
a) Sub gingival box
b) Bad oral hygiene
c) Contact free area
d) Class I without central contact CORRECT
125. HBV can be transmitted by transplacental route :
a) True CORRECT
b) false
126. In sickle cell anemia , O2 is decreased in oral mucosa
a) True CORRECT
b) False
127. Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell membrane
a) True CORRECT
b) False
128. Immunofluorescent test and biopsy are used to diagnose pemphigus:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
129. After RCT, for insertion of post dowel
a) Post applied under pressure
b) Post should be lose
c) Insert it without pressure but with retention CORRECT
130. In single rooted teeth with root canal treatment, best restoration is:
a) Casted post n core CORRECT
b) Prefabricated post and amalgam
c) Prefabricated post and composite
d) Composite post and core without a dowel
131. Selection of shade for composite is done:
a) Under light CORRECT
b) After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam
c) None of the above
132. Measuring BP is one of vital signs important in medically compromised patients
a) True CORRECT
b) False
133. Commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration pt. complain from pain due to
a) Hotness
b) Coldness CORRECT
c) Occlusal pressure
d) Galvanic shock
e) Taking sweet
134. In class V composite restoration, a layer of bonding agent is applied
a) Following removal of cement then cured CORRECT
b) Following removal of cement and then cured
c) Cured then removed cement
135. Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary molar is
a) Replace and suture
b) Remove and suture with primary healing CORRECT
c) Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire
d) Remove and leave it to heal
136. Microbial virulent produced by root canal bacteria is collagenase from spirochetes:
a) True CORRECT
b) False
137. Bacteria in root canal pathosis
a) Mixed anaerobic and aerobic CORRECT
b) Single obligate anaerobes
c) Aerobes
d) None of the above
138. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it
a) Stimulates formation of secondary dentin CORRECT
b) Not irritant to the pulp
c) For thermal isolation
139. Irrigation solution for RCT that cause protein coagulation is
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Iodine potassium
c) None of the above CORRECT
140. Use of miswak and toothbrush
a) Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home CORRECT
b) Toothbrush and miswak must be used together
141. Oral diaphragm consists mainly of:
a) Tongue
b) Geniohyoid muscle
c) Digastric muscle
d) Mylohyoid muscle CORRECT
142. Occlusal rest function:
a) To resist lateral chewing movement
b) To resist vertical forces CORRECT
c) Stability
d) Retention
143. In post n core preparation core must:
a) Extend to contrabevel
b) Extend to full length tooth preparation
c) Take same shape of natural tooth
d) Take shape of preparation abutment
Select the appropriate choice:
1. a & d PROBABLE
2. a & b
3. a & c
4. a, b & c
144. in placement of RPD
a) 4 jaw contacts to teeth
b) Only 4 contacts 2 lingual & 2 buccal surface probable
c) Only 4 contacts 2 mesial & 2 distal surface
145. Chronic suppurative periodontitis
a) Pt. complains from moderate pain
b) Fistula with drain CORRECT
c) Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion
146. Acute periodontal abscess
a) Fistula present
b) Swelling enlargement in tooth site CORRECT 2
c) Variable in pain
d) Establishing I & D CORRECT 1
e) None of the above
01 نوفمبر، 2008، الساعة 05:05 مساءً
Inas i wanna say that the true answer of question no.133. which says...
most commonly after placement of amalgam restoration pt.complain from pain with
.....the correct answer is galvanic shock and not cold
06 يناير، الساعة 07:16 صباحاً
Inas the correct answer of question no 135 is a.replace and suture
06 يناير، الساعة 07:24 صباحاً
Inas the correct answer of question no 139 is a.sodium hypochlorite
06 يناير، الساعة 07:42 صباحاً
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Sample Exam Paper
1. The following chemically bond to the tooth
a) Composite resin
b) Dental sealants
c) Glass ionomer cement
d) All of the above
2. Compomer restorative materials are
a) Glass ionomer with polymer components
b) Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses
c) Composite restorations for cervical restorations only
3. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from
a) Improper cavity preparation
b) Faulty manipulation
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
4. A glossy finish is best retained on a
a) Micro filled composite resin restoration
b) Macro filled resin restoration
c) Hybrid composite resin restoration
d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
5. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a
a) No. 330 tungsten carbide bur
b) Mounted stone
c) 12 - fluted carbide bur
d) Coarse diamond point (stone)
6. The functions of cement bases are
a) To act like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks
b) The minimal thickness, which is required , is 0.5 mm of base
Choose the appropriate answer
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None
7. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics
a) Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam
b) It is the least technique sensitive of all current direct restorations
c) High dimensional changes’
Choose the appropriate answer
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 only
8. When polishing the amalgam restoration
a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b) Wait for 24 hours
Select the appropriate answer
1. a and b
2. a only
3. b only
9. Silicate cement
i. First tooth colored restoration
ii. It can be used as permanent filling
iii. It contains 15% fluoride
Select the appropriate combination
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
10. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is
a) Failure to extend the crown preparation into the gingival sulcus
b) Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
c) Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
d) Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci, and marginal ridges
11. Polyether impression materials
a) Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber
b) Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber
c) Can absorb water and swell if stored in water
12. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when
a) Abutment teeth are carious
b) An abutment tooth is inclined but is otherwise sound
c) There is considerable depth of the residual ridge
d) Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
13. The most accurate impression material for making the impression of an inlay cavity
a) Impression compound
b) Condensation type silicone
c) Polyvinyl siloxane
d) Polysulfides
14. To enhance strength properties of ceramic-metal restorations , it is important to
a) Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure
b) Build up thick layer of porcelain
c) Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure
d) Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure
Select the appropriate answer
1. a and b are correct
2. a and c are correct
3. b and c are correct
4. b and d are correct
15. Orthognathic ridge relationship (Class II) presents several problems, which should be taken into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all except:
a) Requires minimum interocclusal distance
b) Have great range of jaw movement in function
c) Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
16. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from
a) Thick posterior border
b) Denture underextended
c) Denture slightly overextended
d) a & b both are correct
17. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture. It is advisable to have
a) 1 – 2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b) Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate occlusion
c) The use of anterior teeth for incision
18. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the
a) Tuberosity
b) Fovea palatinae
c) Maxillary tori
d) Vibrating line
e) Posterior palatal seal
19. To a great extent , forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods
a) Proper location of occlusal rests
b) Selection of lingual bar major connector
c) Developing balanced occlusion
d) All of the above
20. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged patient who has worn maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular anterior teeth would probably show
a) Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
b) Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c) Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d) Insufficient inter occlusal distance
21. The posterior seal in upper complete denture serves the following functions
a) It reduces the patient discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the denture base
b) Retention of the maxillary denture
c) It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing
d) a & b both are correct
22. Dentures
a) Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration
b) The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted and tissue conditioning material is applied and periodically replaced until the tissue are recovered then making impression takes place
c) The patient is cautioned against removing the denture out at night
d) Both a & b are correct
e) All of the above are correct
23. Balanced occlusion refers to
a) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
b) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions
c) A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
24. Indications for the use of linguoplate include
a) For the purpose of retention
b) When the lingual frenum is high or when there is shallow lingual sulcus
c) To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
d) All of the above
25. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient, the physiological rest dimension
a) Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion
b) May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced
c) Is of little importance as it is subject to variations
d) Must always be together than vertical dimension of occlusion
26. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distance extension mandibular removable partial denture, a patient complains of a sensitive abutment tooth. Clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth. The most likely cause is
a) Defective occlusion
b) Exposed dentin at the bottom of the occlusal rest seat
c) Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in opposing occlusion
27. In recent years there has been evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack has been diminished in the more economically developed countries mainly because of the widespread use of
a) Artificial water fluoridation
b) Fluoride toothpaste
c) Dental health education programs
d) Individualized oral hygiene instruction
e) a & c
28. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community based preventive programs would be greater for
a) Dental caries
b) Periodontal disease
c) Dentofacial anomalies
d) Dental fluorosis
29. Dental caries is endemic disease means that the disease
a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
b) Is habitually present in human populations
c) Affects a large number of countries simultaneously
d) Exhibits a seasonal pattern
30. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which
a) Measures what is intended to be measured’
b) Produces repeatedly the same result under a variety of conditions
c) Detects reasonably small shifts, in either directions, in group condition
d) All of the above
31. In terms of caries prevention the most effective and the most cost effective method is
a) Community based programs
b) Privately based programs
c) Individually based programs
32. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate
a) Proximity of the roots to adjacent anatomical structures
b) Shape of the roots
c) Associated pathology
d) b & c
e) all of the above
33. The post operative complication after removal of third molar impaction
a) Secondary hemorrhage
b) Swelling’
c) Pain
d) Alveolar osteitis
e) All of the above
34. Patients on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because
a) The patient is more susceptible to infection
b) Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids’
c) Antibiotics inhibit Herksheimer reactions
d) Antibiotics protect the patient from steroid depletion
35. The periodontal tissues compromise which of the following tissues
a) Gingiva and PDL
b) Gingiva , PDL and alveolar bone
c) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone and cementum
d) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone , cementum and enamel
36. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement
a) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
b) Cyclosporine
c) Nifedipine (Calcium channel blocker)
d) Aspirin
e) None of the above
37. The function of periodontal ligament includes
a) Mechanical function
b) Formative function
c) Nutritive function
d) Sensory function
e) All of the above
38. Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to
a) Remove the attached plaque and calculus
b) Remove necrotic cementum
c) Change the root surface to become biocompatible
d) All of the above
e) a and b are correct
39. A 16 year old patient presents complaining of pain, bad breath, and bleeding gingivae. This began over the weekend while studying for the final examination the patient may have which of the following conditions
a) ANUG
b) Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c) Desquamative gingivitis
d) Acute periodontal cyst
40. Pit & fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissures of which of the following
a) Primary teeth
b) Permanent teeth
c) a & b
41. Teeth that have lost pit & fissure sealants show
a) The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b) Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth’
c) Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d) The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
42. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2?
a) 2% copper
b) 4% copper
c) 10% copper
d) 13% copper
43. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration
a) 30 degree
b) 60 degree
c) 90 degree
d) 130 degree
44. When do you do amalgam finishing
a) Immediately
b) 24 hour later
45. What is the best instrument used for removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall of Class II
a) Chisel
b) Hatchet
c) Gingival marginal trimmer
46. Acute periapical abscess associated with
a) Swelling
b) Widening of PDL
c) Pus discharge
47. Epidemiology can be defined as
a) A study of special areas of the skin
b) The study of the distribution and determinants of disease in man
c) Study of biological animals
d) Study of disease in research laboratory
48. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Same
49. Dental caries
a) Is transmissible disease
b) Is worldwide in distribution but uneven in intensity
c) Can be prevented
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
50. A glossy finish is best retained on a
a) Microfilled composite resin restoration
b) Macrofilled composite resin restoration
c) Hybrid composite resin restoration
d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
51. The most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is
a) Impression compound
b) Condensation type silicones
c) Polyvinyl siloxanes
d) Polysulfides
52. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the attached gingiva and hard palate
a) True
b) False
53. The functions of cement bases are
a) To act like barrier against acids or thermal shocks
b) The minimal thickness which is required is 0.5 mm of the base
Select the appropriate answer
1. a & b
2. a only
3. b only
4. none of the above
54. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics
1. Microleakage decreases with aging of the amalgam restoration
2. It is the least technique sensitive of all current dental restoration
3. High dimensional changes
Select the appropriate
1. 1, 2 & 3
2. 1 & 3
3. 1 & 2
4. 2 only
55. When polishing the amalgam restoration
a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
b) Wait 24 hours
Select the appropriate
1. a & b
2. a only
3. b only
56. Silicate cements
a) First tooth colored restoration
b) It can be used as permanent restoration
c) It contains 15% fluoride
Select the appropriate
1. a , b and c
2. a & b
3. a & c
4. a only
57. Permeability of dentin
a) Bacterial products go through it
b) Decrease by formation of smear layer
c) Bacteria can go inside it
58. How can you prevent dentinal hypersensitivity?
a) Restoration by adhesion
b) Controlled by alcohol
c) Put sedative medication
59. Best way to select retainer for rubber dam
a) Contact all surface of the tooth
b) Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually with outrocking
c) Contact above the height of contour
60. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly
a) To advice the patients to change their faulty habits immediately
b) Reassure the patient that it will disappear by itself
c) To buy a new tooth brush
61. Which of the following statement is true regarding calculus
a) It is composed entirely of inorganic material
b) It is dense in nature and has a rough surface
c) It is mineralized dental plaque
d) All of the above
e) b & c
f) none of the above
62. Overhanging restoration margin should be removed because
a) It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b) It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment level
c) Stimulates inflammatory reaction directly
d) Its removal permits more effective plaque control
e) a & d
63. Chronic suppurative periodontitis
a) Patient complains of moderate pain
b) Fistula with pus discharge
c) Pulp polyp in open caries
64. Acute periodontal abscess
a) Fistula present
b) Swelling and enlargement in the site of the tooth
c) Variable degree of pain
d) None of the above
e) Establish incision and drainage
65. Main use of dental floss
a) Remove calculus
b) Remove overhangs
c) Remove bacterial plaque
d) Remove food debris
66. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radioopaque areas in the canine premolar area region of the mandible is
a) Hematoma
b) Remaining roots
c) Torus mandibularis
d) Internal oblique ridge
e) Genial tubercle
67. Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency
a) Lateral periodontal cyst
b) Squamous cell carcinoma of the jaw bones
c) Primordial cyst
d) Ameloblastoma
e) Osteomyelitis of the mandible
68. Early squamos cell carcinoma of the oral cavity presents as
a) Vesicle
b) A sessile mass
c) Red plaque
d) Ulcer
e) White cauliflower like lesion
69. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Mild hyperglycemia
c) Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agents
d) Anti depressant therapy
Select the appropriate combination
1. only a is correct
2. a and b are correct
3. b,c and d are correct
4. a,b,c and d are correct
70. Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with
a) An ameloblastoma
b) A basal cell carcinoma
c) An odontogenic fibroma
d) Squamous cell carcinoma
71. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on
a) Good medical and dental history
b) Proper clinical examination
c) Result of pulp vitality test
d) Periapical radiographs
e) All of the above
72. In ankylosis
a) There is no PDL
b) Caused by trauma
c) Extracted surgically
d) All of the above
73. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points?
a) Boiling
b) Autoclave
c) Chemical solutions
d) Dry heat sterilization
74. Distinguish periapical and periodontal abscess we use
a) X-ray examination
b) Clinical examination
c) Vitality of the pulp
75. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of endodontic therapy is
a) Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b) No response to percussion and palpation test
c) Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canal
d) None of the above
76. The access opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently
a) Oval
b) Square
c) Triangular
d) None of the above
77. What is the basis for the current endodontic therapy of periapical lesion
a) Due to reach collateral circulation system the periapical areas usually heal despite the condition of the root canal
b) If the source of the periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical healing is good
c) Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilize the canal and the periapical area to promote healing
d) Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst must be treated by surgical intervention
78. To enhance strength properties of ceramometal restoration, it is important to
1. avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure
2. build up thick layer of porcelain
3. porcelain should be uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal structure
4. compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure
Select the most appropriate
a) 1 & 2 are correct
b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 2 & 4 are correct
79. Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of
a) 2 maxillary arches
b) Maxillary arches and nasal arch
80. Reparative dentin
a) Same like secondary dentin
b) Happen at site of irritation
81. Enamel rods
a) In dentin
b) In enamel
82. When you take final impression for crown polysulfide rubber base, you should pour it
a) Within one hour
b) 24 hour
c) One week
83. Mandibular foramen in children
a) Above the occlusal plane
b) Below the occlusal plane
c) At the same level
84. When you give an inferior dental block for pedo the angulations for the needle
a) 7mm below the occlusal plane
b) 5mm below the occlusal plane
c) 7mm above the occlusal plane
d) At the occlusal plane
85. The maximum dose of an x-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique
a) 100 mini roentgen per week
b) 10 roentgen per week
c) 100 roentgen per week
d) 300 roentgen per week
86. The choice of LA depends on
a) Diameter of nerve
b) Structure of bone
c) Number of branches
d) Type of LA agent chemistry
87. A U Shaped radio opaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is
a) The zygomatic process
b) Maxillary sinus wall
c) Coronoid process of mandible
88. Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of tongue is related to paralysis of
a) Lingual nerve
b) Hypoglossal nerve
c) Chorda tympani nerve
d) Facial nerve
89. Periapical abscess is
a) Cavity lined by epithelium
b) Cavity containing blood cells
c) Cavity containing pus cells
d) Cavity containing serous
e) None of the above
90. Acute periapical abscess is characterized by
a) Varying degree of pain
b) Varying degree of swelling
c) Some times not shown on the radiograph
d) All of the above
91. Long bones formed by endochondral ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification and many bones by both mechanism
a) True
b) False
92. The material which release fluoride to be taken by enamel and cementum for a long time
a) Composite
b) GIC
c) Amalgam
d) Cast alloy
93. Epithelial tumor
a) Keratoacanthosis
b) Giant cell tumor
c) Rhabdomyoma
94. Patient with sub-acute endocarditis develop
a) Bacteremia
b) Septecemia
c) Fibril vibration
d) Mitral stenosis
95. The finish line of the core should be
a) At the finish line of final restoration
b) At contra bevel
c) At gingival level
d) Tapered with prepared tooth shape
96. For ceramo metal restoration type of finish line
a) Chamfer
b) Beveled shoulder
97. Adjustment of contact point
a) Pencil
b) Shimstock
c) Silicon spray indicator
d) Dental floss
e) None of the above
98. Benefits of opaque layer
a) Bonding to metal substrate
b) Initiating the color
c) a and b
99. Smear layer composed of
a) Dentin debris
b) Inorganic particles
c) Bacteria
d) All of the above
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呈偔ㄯㄮ㈠〰传ോ䐊瑡㩥䘠楲㈱䘠扥㈠‰㐰㌺㨰㐵䜠呍敓癲牥›灁捡敨㈯㈮ㄮ‴唨楮⥸洠摯獟汳㈯㈮ㄮ‴灏湥卓⽌⸰⸹永䐠噁㈯洠摯慟瑵彨慰獳桴潲杵⽨⸲‱牆湯側条⽥⸵⸰⸲㘲㔳ⵘ潐敷敲ⵤ祂›䡐⽐⸵⸲ㄱ潃瑮湥楄灳獯瑩潩㩮愠瑴捡浨湥㭴映汩湥浡㵥弢彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟彟琮瑸ഢ嘊牡㩹䄠捣灥湅潣楤杮潃瑮湥湅潣楤杮›穧灩潃瑮湥敌杮桴›㌱㘴ര䬊敥⵰汁癩㩥琠浩潥瑵ㄽⰰ洠硡㈽ഹ䌊湯敮瑣潩㩮䬠敥⵰汁癩䌊湯整瑮吭灹㩥甠歮潮湷甯歮潮湷ⵘ潇杯敬䌭慲汷䐭瑡㩥䘠楲㈱䘠扥㈠‰㐰㌺㨰㐵䜠呍اسئلة واجوبة من امتحان الهيئة السعودية للتخصصات الطبية - طب اسنان
تحية طيبة لكم زملائي
لم اعرف اين اضع هذه المشاركة والتي اتوقع ان تكون مفيدة خصوصا للراغبين في العمل بالسعودية حيث يتطلب ذلك اجتيازهم لامتحان كتابي في علوم طب الاسنان هو من اعداد وتنسيق شركة البرومترك العالمية لتنظيم الامتحانات
وقبل شروع احدكم بالقدوم سيكون هذا الامتحان شغله الشاغل ورفيقه بالاحلام واليقظة
ولن اطيل عليكم فهذه مجموعة من الاسئلة وضعتها بين ايديكم للاطلاع عليها واخذ فكرة عامة عن هذا الامتحان
واتمنى الفائدة للجميع
وهاي مجموعة من الاسئلة مع اجوبتها التي يغلب عليها بنسبة 99 بالمية انو صح والجواب الصحيح حطيت جنبو عدة نجمات وارجع اقول انو هاي مو من جهدي وانما من جهد طلاب طب اسنان ج.الملك سعود مشكورين والفضل لأهل الفضل يذكر مشان الحلال والحرام وانا كل مايصير عندي وقت راح انزل الاسئلة اللي مو موجوده بهذه المشاركة واتمنى للجميع الفائدة والتوفيق
what is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam resto...
a-30 degree
b- 60 degree
**c- 90 degree***
d- 130 degree
when you do amalgam finishing.....
a- immediately
**b- 24 hours later****
when polishing amalgam rest .....
1- avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
2- wait for 24 hours
3- all ***
the roof of mandibular fossa consist of:
***a-thin compact bone
b-spongy bone
c-cancellous bone
Q- what is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:
a- 2% copper
b- 4% copper
c- 10 % copper
***d- 13 % copper***
Q- pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissure:
a- in primary teeth
b- in permanent teeth
***c- a & b
Q- what is the best instrument used for removing UN SUPPORTED enamel at the gingival wall of class II:
a- chisel
b- hatchet
***c- gingival marginal trimmer
Q- teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show…
a- the same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b- higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
***c- lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d- the same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
Q- the periodontal tissue compromise which of the following tissue:
a- gingiva and PDL
b- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone
***c- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum
d- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum & enamel
Q- which of the following may cause gingival enlargement
***a- phenyntoin (dilantin)
b- cyclosporine
c- nifedipine ( a calcium channel blocker)
d- aspirin
e- none of the above
هنا كمان b ,c صح بس مو محطوطة ومابعرف ليش وغالبا سقطت سهوا من اللي نقلها بعد ماطلع من الامتحان ويجوز كان في خيار انو الثلاثة a.b.c
Q- the function of the periodontal ligament include
a- mechanical function
b- formative function
c- nutritive function
d- sensory function
***e- all of the above
Q- pt on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because
****a- the pt is more susceptible to infection
b- antibiotics are synergistic to steroids
c- antibiotic inhibits kerksheimer reaction
d-antibiotic protect the pt from steroid depletion
Q- periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to
a- remove the attached plaque and calculus
b- remove the necrotic cementum
c- change the root surface to become biocompatible
d- all of the above
e- a & b only
هنا كمان غالبا كل الاجابات صحيحة لأنو لازم يتحقق هذا الشي بعد المعالجة - اعادة الارتباط- ازالة الملاط المتمو- جعل سطح الجذر سليما وحيويا
Q- early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity present as:
a- vesicle
b- sessile mass
c- a red plaque
***d- an ulcer
e- a white cauliflower like lesion
Q- which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency:
a- lateral periodontal cyst
b- squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c- primordial cyst
***d- ameloblastoma
e- osteomylitis of the mandible
Q- firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with:
a- an ameloblastoma
b- a basal cell carcinoma
c- an odontogenic fibroma
***d- a squamous cell carcinoma
Q-Ankylosis:
a- no PDL
b- caused by trauma
c- extracted surgically
***d- all of the above
Q- the following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:
1-hypoglycemia
2- mild hyperglycemia
3- anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent
4- anti depressant therapy
a- 1 only is correct
b- 1& 2 are correct
c- 2,3 &4 are correct
***d-1,2,3 &4 are correct
Q- one of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the attached gingival and hard palate:
a- true
***b- false
لأنو ما يكون على الهارد بالت
1. Compomer restorative materials are:
a. Glass ionomer with polymer components
***b. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses
c. Composite resin for cervical restorations only
2. A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a. Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b. Macrofilled resin restoration.
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d. Fiber re -inforced composite resin restoration
3. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:
a. No. 330 Tungsten carbide bur.
b. Mounted stone.
***c. 12- fluted carbide bur.
d. Coarse diamond point (stone).
4. The functions of cement bases are:
1-To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2-The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
b. None of the above.
***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only.
5. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
1- Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
2- it is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
3-High dimensional changes.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1 and 3.
***c. 1 and 2.
d. 2 only.
6. Silicate cement:
1-First tooth colored restoration.
2-It can be used as permanent filling.
3-It contains 15 % fluoride.
a. 1, 2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
***c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 only
7. . The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are :
a. Greater
b. Less
***c. The same
Q- radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radio opaque areas in the canine-premolar region of the mandible is:
a-hematoma
b- remaining roots
***c- tours mandibularis
d- internal oplique ridge
e- genial tubercle
Q- dental carries is an endemic disease "means that the disease is:
a- occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
****b- is habitually present in human population
c- affect large number of countries simultaneously
d- exhibit a seasonal pattern
Q- in countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community –based preventive programs would be greater for:
***a- dental caries
b-periodontal disease
c- dentofacial anomalies
d- dental floozies.
The functions of cement bases are:
1-To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2-The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
b. None of the above.
***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only
Q- the x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
***a- periapical x-ray
b- bitewing x-ray
c- occlusal x-ray
d- non of the above
في نقاش بوحدا من النوط انو الاسنان الامامية افضل وسيلة هي بالاشعة المتألقة - بالعربي نسيت ايش ترجمتها بالضبط يعني الجواب رقم d بس لما نشوف صيغة السؤال نلاقي حدد الاكس راي حصرا ومعناتو الجواب هنا مثل مو مختار
Q- in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
***a- community based programs
b- private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q- radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a- proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q- the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c- pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above
Q- acute periapical abcess associated with
***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q- epidemiology can be defined as :
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q- dental caries :
a- is a transmissible disease
b- is world wide in distribution
c- can be prevented
***d- all of the above
e- non of the above
Q- the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
- At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:
a- Prismless enamel
***b- DEJ
c-Center of enamel Prisms
d-Edge of enamel Prisms
e-Facial enamel
- The Function of cement bases are:
1-act a like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
2- The minimal thickness, which is required is .05 mm of base
a-1+2
b-none of the above
***c-1 only
d-2 only
- A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a- Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b- Macro filled composite resin restoration.
c-Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d- Fiber re-inforced composite resin restoration
.
in chronic suppurative periodontitis:
a - pt. complain from moderate pain
***b- fistula with drain
c- pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion
blood supply of the palate is from:
a- greater palatine artery
b-lesser palatine artery
c- facial artery
d- long sphenopalatine artery
e- anatomising braches from all of the above except c
هنا ماعندي الجواب الصح مافي كتاب تشريح جنبي وحتى بالموقع كان نقاشهم مو واضح للوصول للجواب الصح بس غالبا هو e انا المشكلة كانت عندي ياشباب باللغة فرق بين انك تدرس طول اخمس سنين بالعربي ويجي تمتحن اخر شي بالانكليزي
mandibular branch of tigiminal nerve leaves the skull through:
a- foramen rotundum
***b- foramen ovale
c-superior orbital fissure
d-inferior orbital fissure
e- juglar foramen
Q- in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
***a- community based programs
b- private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q- radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a- proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q- the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c- pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above
Q- acute periapical abcess associated with
***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q- epidemiology can be defined as :
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q- dental caries :
a- is a transmissible disease
b- is world wide in distribution
c- can be prevented
***d- all of the above
e- non of the above
Q- the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
Q- formicrisol when used should be :
a- full Saturated
b- half saturated
***c- fifth saturated
d- non of the above
Q- the PH of the calcium hydroxide is:
a- 7.2
***b- 12
c- 19
d-5.5
Q- the irrigation solution is good because:
a- lubricate the canals
b- flushes the debris
c- non of the above
***d- all of the above
Q- an 18 years old pt present complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival. This began over the weekend while studying for the final exam.the pt may have which of the following conditions:
***a- acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
b- rapidly progressive periodontitis
c- desquamative gingivitis
d- acute periodontal cyst
Q- best way to select retainer for rubber dam
a- contact all surface of the tooth
***b- four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking
c- contact above the height of contour
permeability of dentine:
**a- bacterial products go through it
**b- decrease by formation of smear layer
**c- bacteria can go in
هذا الجواب احتارو في العلماء
Q- how can you prevent dental hyper sensitivity
***a- restoration by adhesion
b- controlled by alcohol
c- put sedative medication
Q- overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:
a- it provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b- it tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss
c- stimulate inflammatory reaction directly
d- its removal permits more effective plaque control
e- a & d
***e- a & d
Q- which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points
a- boiling
b- autoclave
***c- chemical solutions
d- dry heat sterilization
Q- the radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy
***a- reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b- no response to percussion and palpation test
c- extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals
d- non of the above
Q- the accesses opening for amaxillary premolar is most frequently
***a- oval
b- square
c- triangular
d- non of the above
Q- mandibular foramen in children
a- above the occlusal plane
***b- below the occlusal plane
c- at the level
Q- a U- shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is
***a- the zygomatic process
b- maxillary sinus wall
Q- loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of
***a- lingual nerve
b- hypoglossal nerve
c- chorda tympani nerve
Q- long bone formed by endochondrial ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification and many bones by booth mechanisms
***a- true
b-false
Q- the choice of local anesthesia depend on :
a- diameter of the nerve
b- structure of the bone
c- number of branches
***d- type of L.A agent chemistry
Q- when you give inferior dental block for pedo pt the angulations for the needle
a- 7 mm below the occlusal plane
b- 5 mm below the occlusal plane
c- 7 mm above the occlusal plane
***d- at the occlusal plane
Q- main use of dental fioss
a- remove calculus
b- remove over hang
***؟؟c- remove bacterial plaque
***؟؟d- remove food debris
The following are types of hamartoma except:30-
***a-CementobLastoma
b-Compound odontoma
c-Complex odontoma
Most common Benign Tumer in oral cavity is:31-
a-Fibroma(AmdobLashic pibroma)
هو الجواب الصح وما اذكر ايش كانت الخيارات الثانية
In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in Length:39-
***a-FiLi form
b-Fungi form
c-Foliate
d-Circumvallates
Which most common salivary gland neoplasm:41-
a-Pleomorphic adenoma
كمان هو الصح
Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:42-
a-submandiuLar gland
***b-sublingual gland
Ranula Can be treated by:43-
***a-Excision
b-Cauterization
c-Incision
d-Marsuplization
كان في نقاش على الطريقة الفعالة للتخلص من الكيس الضفدعي بس غالبا انو اول شي ومباشرة بالاستئصال وبعضهم يقو لا اول شي بالتكوية - يعني d واذا نكست الحالة نروح على الشق والاستئصال
35- Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina?
a-SubmandibuLar and masticatory spaces
b-SubLinguaL+Lat.Pha.space
****c-SubmandibuLar+SubLinguaL+submentaL
33- Neoplasm that spread by Lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reach the:
a-PreauricuLar Lymph nodes
***b-mental Lymph nodes
***c-submandibuLar Lymph nodes
d-Pterygoid plexus
e-juguLo-digastric nodes
45- In radiographs, which disease cause multiple radiolucencies
a-Hypothyroidism
***b-Hyperparathyroidism
c-Ricket disease
Aplastic anemia is caused by:46-
a-Tetracycline
b-penicillin
c-Erythromycin
***d-Sulfonamide
49- The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
***a-Osmosis
b-Active transport
c-Filtration
d-Diffusion
50- Cell that can give more than one type:
a- Fibroblast
b- Odontoblast
***c- Mesenchymal cellِ
high rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a- cahnge direction of forces accuring here
***b- long canine root
c- lower boreder is thin in this area
d- alveolus is thin in this area
شخصيا كمان الجواب الاول صح لأنو تغير اتجاه القوة يحدث بهاي المنطقة والمهم اذا ما كان في خيار يقول انو الاثنين صح فنختار طول الجذر لأنو الاصح
what is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain
a- 20 mg/ml
b- 1.8 mg/ml
***c- 3.6 mg
non odontogenic Lesion similar to Endo Lesion:32-
a-Hyperparathyroidism
***b-initial stage of comental dysplasia
c-ossifying Fibroma
d-Dentigeaus cyst
e-ameLobLastoma
f-Lateral periodontal cyst
j-myxoma & Hemangieoma
Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life?36-
a-Herpes Simplex
b-Herpes zoster
c-varecilla Virus
****d-None of the above
38- The scientific evidence in dictating that oral Lichen pLanus is a "premalignant Lesion" is:
a-Very strong
b-Non-existent
c-Moderately strong
***d-Weak
47- Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because
***a-marrow spaces are wide
b-Affect growth centre
c-Hypo calcification in enamel
44- 10 years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the disease:
a-Fibrous dysphasia
***b-Cherubim
c-polymorphic adenoma
48- AchiLd came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication;
the condition is described as:
a-Epilepsy
***b-Cerebral palsy
Odontogenic infection can cause Least complication:37-
a-Pulmonary abscess
b-Peritonitis
c-Prosthetic valve infection
***d-cavernous sinus thrombosis
The Common disease affecting the submandibuLar salivary gland is:
***a-salivary calculi
b-pleomorphic adenomas
c-Viral sialoadenitis
d-Infected sialoadenitis
The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
a- failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
b- lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
***c- lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts
d- lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
Polyether impression materials:
a- are less stable dimensionally than poly sulfide rubber
b- are less stiff than poly sulfide rubber
****c- can absorb water and swell if stored in water
an anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:
a- abutment teeth are not carious
b- an abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound
***c- there is considerable resorption of the residual ridges
d- crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
the most accurate impression material for making the impression of an onlay cavity:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicone
***c- polyvinyl siloxane
d- polysulfide
for the ceramometal restorations,the type of finish line is:
***a- chamfer
b- beveled shoulder
adjustment of contact point :
a- pincile
***b- shim stock
c- siloicon spray indicator
d- dental floss
e- non of the above
benefits of opaque porcelain layer:
a- bonding the metal structure
b- initiating the color
***c- a & b
orthognathic ridge relationship (class II) present several problems which should be taken into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all EXCEPT:
***a- require minimum interocclusal distance
b- have a great range of jaw movement
c- require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:
***a- 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b- definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior teeth for incision
the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the:
a- tuberosity
b- fovea palatine
c- maxillary tori
***d- vibrating line
e- posterior palatal seal
an examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged pt who has worm maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular teeth would probably show:
a- cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
***b- loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c- flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d- insufficient inter occlusal distance
the posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions:
a- it reduces pt discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the denture base
b- retention of the maxillary denture
c- it compensate for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing
***d- …..& b are correct
المرجع.....
b & c لقيتهم مذكورين في الdecks>>> بس a كمان شكلها صح...لو فيهall of the above انا اختارها..
balanced occlusion refers to:
a- the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
***b- the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions
c- a type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
the indication for the use lingual plate major connector include:
a- for the purpose of retention
b- when the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus
c- to prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
***d- all of the above
in registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous pt, the physiological rest position:
a- is equal to the vertical dimension of occlusion
b- may be exceeded if the appearance of the pt is enhanced
c- is of a little importance as it is subjected to variations
***d- must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion
three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial denture, a pt complained of a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth, the most likely cause is:
***a-defective occlusion
b- exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats
c- galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration restoration in the abutment tooth
to enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to:
a- avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure
b- build up thick layer of porcelain
c- porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure
d- compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure
e- 1 & 2 are correct
***f- 1 & 3 are correct
g- 2 and 4 are correct
the finish line of the core should be:
a- at the finish line of the final restoration
***b- at contra bevel
c- at gingival level
d- tapered with prepared tooth shape
nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from:
a- thick posterior border
b- denture under extended
c- denture slightly over extended
***d- a & b are correct
to a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods:
***a- proper location of the occlusal rests
b- selection of lingual bar major connector
c- developing balanced occlusion
d- all of the above
المرجع....
حست في هذا السؤال شوي .بس c اكيد مو صح لانه الbalanced occ هذا concept يستخدم في الsetting of complete denture teeth بس مو لما يكون عندنا natural teeth.
و الb>> عليها كلام لانه لو قال lingual plate كان قلنا ممكن....
a هي اكثر وحده منطقيه لانهrests هي الي تساعد to direct ال occlusal forces along the long accses of the abutment tooth
هذا والله اعلم......
هذا الكلام نقلا عن المنتدى الذي تم فيه النقاش
wich cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
a-trigeminal n.
***b-facial n.
c-vagus n.
d-vestibalcochealer n.
ligaments associated with TMJ:
a-tempromandibular
b-sphenomandibular
c-stylomandibular
***d-all of the above
Ref * : The lateral temporamandibular ligament : limits the movement of the mandible in a posterior
Eruption cyst "eruption hematoma" can be treated by:11-
***a-No treatment
b-Immediate incision
c-Complete uncoverage
d-Observe for one week then incise
Cholesterol crystals are found in:12-
a-Keratocyst
***b-Periodontal cyst
Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:15-
a-Unerupted permanent maxillary canines
***b-Unerupted mandibular third molars
16- Histopathologically , dentigerous cyst Lining epithelium may be:
a-CuboidaL in type
***b-Stratified squamous in type
c-Reduced enamel epithelium
d-ALL of the above
ThyrogLossaL duct cysts:17-
a-Are only found in the posterior tongue
b-Clinically present in the Lateral neck tissue
***c-May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyrogLossaL duct
d-Are sometimes called Lympho-epithelial cysts
Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm?18-
a-Rhabdomyoma
b-Fibroma
c-Lipoma
d-Granular Cell tumor
***e-Keratoacanthoma
19- Unilateral swelling + slowly progressing Lesion on the Left side of the mandible. This could be:
a-osteoma
b-CementobLastoma
***c-Ossifying Fibroma
d-Osteo-sarcom
Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma;20-
***a-Postero-LateraL border of tongue
b-Floor of the mouth
c-Buccal mucosa
d-Lip
e-Skin
Apical periodontal cyst arise from:13-
a-Hertwig sheath
***b-Epithelial cell rest of malassez
Which is the most Likely cause of periodontal cyst?14-
a-Cell Rest of Malassez
b-Cell rest of serss
***c-Cell of Hertwig sheet
5- The process of attraction of NeutrophiLs to a site of Local tissue injury is called:
a-Phagocytosis
b-Diapedesis
***c-Chemotaxis
d-Epistaxis
Action of Histamine:6-
**a-Vasodilatation
**b-Permeability
**c-Chemokinesis
***d-bronchospasm
Formation of latral periodontal cyst due to
a-Nasolacrimal cyst
b-Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
c-Epithelial rest of maLassaz
****d-The epithelial rests or glands of Serres
the following structures open into the middel meatus:
a-nasolacrimal duct
b-posteror ethmoidal sinus
c-maxillary sinus
d-sphenoid sinus
e-anterior ethmoidal sinus
1- a,b &d
2- a & b
***3- c & e
4- all of the above
mastoid process is part of:
***a-temporal bone
b-parital bone
c-occiptal bone
d-frontal bone
.
.
The term acanthosis refers to:22-
a-A decreased production of keratin
b-An increased production of keratin
***c-An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone (stratum spinosum)
d-None of the above
.
The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:21-
***a-Fibroma
b-Papiloma
c-Lipoma
23- The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
***c-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma
d-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous Low grade adenocarcinoma
24- The moat common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a-Osteochondrosarcoma
****b-Osteosarcoma
c-Leiomyosarcoma
d-Chondrosarcoma
25- The majority of intra-oral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:
a-Poorly differentiated
***b-Well moderately differentiated
c-Spindle cell in type
d-Carcinoma in situ
Histopathologically , early verrucous carcinomas:26-
***a-Have characteristic microscopic features
b-can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c-Can be confused with Lichen pLanus
d-Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
27- Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma in characterized by islands of:
a-Basophilic islands of tumor/cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartiLage
b-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance
***???[c-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance and evidence of serous acini
d-Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini
28- The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:
a-Homogenous Leukoplakia
***b-Erythroplakia
c-Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d-Speckled Leukoplakia
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:29-
a-Always originates within the surface epithelium
***b-Mostly originates within the surface epithelium
c-Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue
d-Always originates from Langerhans cells within epithelium
المهم اتمنى الفائدة والنجاح لمن هو على ابواب الامتحان
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